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CTET July 2013 Paper-II Previous Year Paper

CTET July 2013 Paper-I Previous Year Paper
July 3, 2019
CTET February 2014 Paper-I Previous Year Paper
July 3, 2019

CTET July 2013 Paper-II

Q. 1 Which one of the following is a critique of theory of multiple intelligences ?

A. Multiple intelligence are only the ‘talents’ present in intelligence as a whole.

B. Multiple intelligence provides students to discover their propensities.

C. It over emphasises practical intelligence.

D. It cannot be supported by empirical evidence at all.


Q. 2 Which one of the following pair is least likely to be a correct match ?

A. Children enter in – Chomsky the world with certain knowledge about language

B. Language and ·-. Vygotsky thought are initially two different activities

C. Language IS· — Piaget contingent on thought

D. Language IS a – B.F. Skinner stimuli in environment


Q. 3 Features assigned due to social roles and not due to biological endowment are called

A. Gender role attitudes

B. Gender role strain

C. Gender-role stereotype

D. Gender role diagnosticity


Q. 4 Which of the following will be most appropriate to maximise learning ?

A. Teacher should identify her cognitive style as well as of her students’ cognitive style.

B. Individual difference in students should be smoothened by pairing similar students.

C. Teacher should focus on only one learning style to bring optimum result.

D. Students of similar cultural background should be kept in the same class to avoid difference in opinion.


Q. 5 All of the following promote assessment as learning except

A. telling students to take internal feedback.

B. generating a safe environment for students to take chances.

C. tell students to reflect on the topic taught.

D. testing students as frequently as possible.


Q. 6 When a cook tastes a, food during cooking it may be akin to

A. Assessment of learning

B. Assessment for learning

C. Assessment as learning

D. Assessment and learning


Q. 7 Differentiated instruction is

A. using a variety of groupings to meet student needs.

B. doing something different for every student in the class.

C. disorderly or undisciplined student activity.

D. using groups that never change


Q. 8 In a culturally and linguistically diverse classroom, before deciding whether a student comes under special education category, a teacher should

A. Not involve parents as parents have their own work

B. ‘Evaluate student on her/his mother language to establish disability

C. Use specialised psychologists

D. Segregate the child to neutralise environmental factor


Q. 9 Learning disabilities may occur due to all of the following except ·.

A. Teachers way of teaching

B. Prenatal use of alcohol

C. Mental Retardation

D. Meningitis during infancy


Q. 10 An inclusive school reflects on all the following questions except :

A. Do we believe that all students can learn

B. Do,we work in teams to plan and deliver learning enabling environment

C. Do we properly segregate special children from normal to provide better care

D. Do we adopt strategies catering for the diverse needs of students


Q. 11 Gifted students are

A. Convergent thinkers

B. Divergent thinkers .

C. Extrovert

D. Very hard working


Q. 12 The shaded area represent students in a normal distribution who fall

A. At σ=0

B. Between 2σ-3σ

C. After 3σ

D. Between σ-2σ


Q. 13 Which one of the following pair would be most appropriate choice to complete the following sentence ? Children faster when they are involved in the activities that seem to be________

A. Forget; useful in a classroom

B. Recall; linked with their classwork only

C. Memorise; culturally neutral

D. Learn; useful in real life


Q. 14 CBSE prescribed group activities for students in place of activities for individual students.

The idea behind doing so could be

A. to overcome the negative emotional response to individual competition which may generalise across learning.

B. to make · it easy for teachers to observe groups instead of individual students.

C. to rationalise the: time available with schools most of which do not have enough time for individual activities.

D. to reduce the infrastructural cost of the activity.


Q. 15 The conclusion ‘Children can learn violent behaviour depicted in movies’ may be derived on the basis of the work done by which of the following psychologist ?

A. Edward L. Thorndike

B. J.B. Watson

C. Albert Bandura

D. Jean Piaget


Q. 16 Students observe fashion shows and try to imitate models. This kind of imitation may be called

A. Primary simulation

B. Secondary simulation

C. Social learning

D. Generalisation


Q. 17 If students repeatedly make errors during a lesson, a teacher should

A. make changes in instruction, tasks, timetable or seating arrangements.

B. leave the lesson for the time being and come: back to it after some time.

C. identify the erring students and talk to principal about them.

D. make erring students stand outside the classroom.


Q. 18 Following are some techniques to manage anxiety due to an approaching Examination; except

A. familiarising with the pattern of question paper.

B. thinking too much ·about the result.

C. seeking support.

D. emphasising strengths.


Q. 19 Bloom’s taxonomy is a hierarchical organisation of ____

A. achievement goals

B. curricular declarations

C. reading skills

D. cognitive objectives


Q. 20 A, B and’ C are three students studying ·English. ‘A’ finds it . interesting -and thinks it will be helpful for her in future. ‘B’ studies English as she wants to secure first rank in the class. ‘C’ studies it as she is primarily concerned to secure passing grades. The goals of A, B and C respectively are

A. Mastery, Performance, Performance A voidance

B. Performance, Performance A voidance, Mastery

C. Performance Avoidance, Mastery, Performance

D. Mastery, Performance Avoidance, Performance


Q. 21 Even though this was clearly in violation of his safety needs, Captain Vikram Batra died fighting in the Kargil War while ·protecting his country. He might have

A. sought novel experience.

B. achieved self-actualisation.

C. ignored his belongingness needs.

D. wanted to earn a good name to his family.


Q. 22 Extinction of a response is more difficult following ·

A. partial reinforcement

B. continuous reinforcement

C. punishment

D. verbal reproach


Q. 23 Mastery orientation can be encouraged by

A. focusing on students individual effort.

B. comparing students successes with each other.

C. assigning lot of practice material as home assignments.

D. taking unexpected tests.


Q. 24 Which one of the following is correctly matched?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4


Q. 25 All the following facts indicate that a child is emotionally and socially fit in a class except

A. develop good relationships with peers

B. concentrate on and persist with challenging tasks

C. manage both anger and joy effectively

D. concentrate persistently on competition with peers


Q. 26 Which of the following statements support role of environment in the development of a child ?

A. Some students quickly process information while others in the same class do not.

B. There has been a steady increase in students’ average performance on IQ tests in last few decades.

C. Correlation · between IQs of identical twins raised in different . homes is as high as.0.75.

D. Physically fit children are often found to be morally good.


Q. 27 Socialisation includes cultural transmission and

A. discourages rebellion.

B. development of individual, personality.

C. fits children into labels.

D. provides emotional support.


Q. 28 A teacher shows two identical glasses filled with an equal amount of juice in them. She empties them in two different glasses one of which is taller and the other one is wider. She asks her class to identify which glass would have more juice in it. Students reply that the taller glass has more juice. Her students have difficulty in· dealing wit 

A. Accommodation

B. Egocentrism

C. Decentring

D. Reversibility


Q. 29 Karnail Singh does not pay income tax despite legal procedures and expenses. He thinks that he cannot support a corrupt government which spends millions .of rupees in building unnecessary dams. He is probably in which state of Kohlberg’s stages of . moral development

A. Conventional

B. Post Conventional

C. Pre Conventional

D. Para Conventional


Q. 30 Intelligence theory incorporates the mental processes involved in intelligence (i.e. metacomponents) and the varied forms that intelligence can take (i.e. creative intelligence)

A. Spearman’s ‘g’ factor

B. Sternberg’s triarchic theory of intelligence

C. Savant theory of intelligence

D. Thurstone’s primary mental abilities


Q. 31 The number of integers less than -3 but greater than -8 is

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 6


Q. 32 The distance between two places is 12 km. A map scale is 1: 25000. The distance between the two places on the map is

A. 24

B. 36

C. 48

D. 60


Q. 33 The reciprocal of -(3/8) x -(7/13) is

A. 104/21

B. -104/21

C. 21/104

D. -21/104


Q. 34 The number of vertices in a polyhedron which has 30 edges and 12 faces is

A. 12

B. 15

C. 20

D. 24


Q. 35 When half of a number is increased by 15, the result is 39. The sum of digits of the original number is

A. 6

B. 7

C. 9

D. 12


Q. 36 In ΔPQT, PQ =PT. The points R and S are on QT such that PR = PS. If ∠PTS = 62° and ∠RPS = 34°, then measure of ∠QPR is

A. 11°

B. 13°

C. 15°

D. 17°


Q. 37 If for ΔABC and ΔDEF, the correspondence CAB <—> EDF gives a congruence, then which of the followIng is not true ~·



C. ∠A=∠D

D. ∠B=∠F


Q. 38  40% of (100 – 20% of 300) is equal to

A. 16

B. 20

C. 64

D. 140


Q. 39 HCF of two numbers is 28 and their LCM is 336. If om~ number is 112, then the other number is

A. 56

B. 70

C. 84

D. 98


Q. 40 If 2x/3 = 0.6 and 0.02 y = 1, then the value of x +y-1 is

A. 0.92

B. 1.1

C. 49.1

D. 50.9


Q. 41 If Y = (x+2)/(x + 1), y is not equal to 1 and then value of x is

A. (y+2)/(1-y)

B. (y+2)/(y-1)

C. (y-2)/(y+1)

D. (2-y)/(1-y)


Q. 42 A square and a circle have equal perimeters. Tine ratio of the area of the square to the area of the circle is

A. 1:1

B. 1:4

C. π:2

D. π:4


Q. 43 ABCD is a square with AB = (x + 16) em and BC = (3x) em. The perimeter (in em) of the square is

A. 16

B. 24

C. 32

D. 96


Q. 44 The mean of 10 numbers is 0. If 72 and -12 are included in these numbers, the new mean will be

A. 0

B. 6

C. 5

D. 60


Q. 45 The circumference of the base of a right circular cylinder is 44 em and its height is 15 cm. The volume (in cubic centimeter) of·the cylinder is

A. 770

B. 1155

C. 1540

D. 2310


Q. 46 A class VII teacher wants to discuss the following problem in the class :

“A square is divided into four congruent rectangles. The perimeter of each rectangle is 40 units. What is the perimeter of given square ?”

Key Mathematical concepts required to solve this problem is

A. Area of square· and rectangle, perimeter of square and rectangle and definition of square and rectangle

B. Meaning of the terms square, rectangle, congruent, perimeter, etc.

C. Area of rectangle, perimeter of square

D. Formation of algebraic equation to solve the problem.


Q. 47 Algebra is introduced in the middle classes. According to Piaget’s’ theory of cognitive development, it is appropriate to introduce algebra at this stage as

A. the child is at sensor motor stage and can understand with the help of lots of manipulates.

B. the child is: at pre-operational stage and can understand abstract concepts.

C. the child is at concrete-operational stage and he can understand and conceptualize concrete experiences by creating ·logical structure.

D. the child is at formal operational stage and is fully mature to grasp the abstract concepts.


Q. 48 Mr. Sharma was assessing the students’ work on exponents. One of the response sheet was as follows :

a)2³ x 2⁵ = 2⁸

b)3² x 4² = 12⁴

c)3³ + 3⁵ = 1/3²

d)9³ + 18⁶ = (1/2)³

On the basis of this response sheet Mr. Sharma can make the following observations :


A. Child has understood the laws of exponents and can apply them well.

B. Child has understood the laws of exponents but has made clerical errors.

C. Child has understood the laws of exponents but has not practised the questions involving division of two numbers

D. Child has understood the law of exponents for the cases where the base is same and has missed the · concept for the case where the base is different.


Q. 49 According to Van Hiele level of Geometric thought the five levels of geometric understanding are visualization, analysis, informal deduction, formal deduction and rigour.

Students of class Vll are asked to classify the quadrilaterals according to their properties.

These students are at __ level of Van Hiele Geometric thought.

A. Visualization

B. Analysis

C. Informal Deduction

D. Formal Deduction·


Q. 50 A task assigned to the class Vlll student is as follows : An open box is to be made out of a metallic sheet of 50· em x 65 em. Length and breadth of the box is 30 .em and 15 em respectively. What is the possible height of the· box ? Also find the volume of this box. This task refer to

A. lower level cognitive demand as it requires the knowledge of formulae of volume of cuboid.

B. lower level of cognitive demand as there is no connection between concepts involved and procedure required.

C. higher level of cognitive demand is the problem can be solved by making diagrams and connections between many possible solutions

D. higher level of cognitive demand as it requires the use of conceptual understanding that underline the procedure to complete the task.


Q. 51 Mr. Nadeem gave the following task to his class, after completing the topic on lines and angles :

Speak for 2 minutes on the following figures using your knowledge about lines and and angles.This task is

A. Reflective in nature, can be used to pass time.

B. Exploratory in nature, can be used for summative assessments.

C. reflective as well can be used for formative assessment

D. communicating and can encourage mathematical talk in the classroom during free time


Q. 52 A child of class Vll defined the rectangle as follows : “Rectangle is a quadrilateral whose opposite sides are parallel and equal.” The definition reflects that the child

A. cannot recognize the shape.

B. do not know the correct properties of the shape.

C. knows the properties of the shape, but repeated some properties in definition.

D. knows some; properties, but missed some important to complete the definition.


Q. 53 A very common error observed in addition of linear expression is 5y+3=8y. This type of error is termed as

A. Clerical error

B. Conceptual error

C. Procedural error

D. Careless error


Q. 54 Read the following question from the class VI text-book : “Prabal deposited t 5,000 in a_ bank at the rate of 5% interest per annum. After 2 years he withdrew the money to purchase the study table for rs. 3,500. He deposited! the money left ·with him again at the rate of 5% interest per annum for another two years. How much amount will he receive after two years ?” What values can be inculcated in students through this question ?

A. Honesty

B. Habit of saving money and spending it wisely

C. Sincerity

D. Simplicity and helping others


Q. 55 Following is a problem from text-book of class VI: “Express the following statement through linear expression : Neha has 7 more toffees than Megha. If Megha has x toffees, how many toffees does Neha have ?” Which competence of Bloom’s cognitive domain is referred -in the above question ?

A. Knowledge

B. Comprehension

C. Analysis

D. Synthesis


Q. 56 If p = 3²⁰⁰⁰ + 3⁻²⁰⁰⁰ and q = 3²⁰⁰⁰ + 3⁻²⁰⁰⁰, then the value of p² – q² is

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4


Q. 57 The square of 9 is divided by the cube root of 125. The remainder is

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4


Q. 58 The value of √(16√(8)√(4)) is

A. 16

B. 8

C. 8∛2

D. 16√2


Q. 59 One-half of 1.2 x 10³⁰ is

A. 6.0 x 10³⁰

B. 6.0 x 10²⁹

C. 0.6 x 5³⁰

D. 1.2 x 10¹⁵


Q. 60 If 2/3, 23/30, 9/10, 11/15 and 4/5 are written in ascending order, then the fraction in the middle most

A. 23/30

B. 4/5

C. 2/3

D. 11/15


Q. 61 The steps required for the conversion of kitchen garbage into manure are given below in a jumbled form. t:

(A) Put the garbage in the pit.

(B) Cover the bottom of the pit with sand.

(C) Cover the pit loosely with grass or a gunny bag.

(D) Add worms.

The correct sequence of these steps is:

A. (B), (A), (C), (D)

B. (B), (C), (A), (D)

C. (B), (A), (D), (C)

D. (B), (D), (A), (C)


Q. 62 Two organisms are best friends and live together. One provides shelter, water and nutrients while the other prepares and provides food. Such an association of organisms is termed as

A. Autotrophy

B. Parasitism

C. Hetrotrophy

D. Symbiosis


Q. 63 In the alimentary canal. the swallowed· food moves downwards because of

A. the contraction of muscles in the wall of food pipe.

B. the flow of fluid material taken

C. gravitational pull.

D. force provided by the muscular tongue.


Q. 64 Frogs and earthworms breathe through their skin because of which the skin of both the organisms is

A. dry and rough

B. dry and slimy

C. moist and rough

D. moist and slimy


Q. 65 While going for a picnic a student noted the reading on the odometer on the bus after every 10 minutes till the end of the journey. Later on he recorded the reading in a table shown below:

The average speed of the bus in the entire journey in metres per second was

A. 15

B. 18

C. 30

D. 54


Q. 66 You are provided with a concave mirror, a concave lens, a convex mirror and a convex lens. To obtain an enlarged image of an object you can use either

A. concave lens or .convex lens

B. concave mirror or convex mirror

C. concave mirror or concave lens

D. concave mirror or convex lens


Q. 67 Select from the following a set of Kharif Crops :

A. Cotton, paddy, pea, linseed

B. Paddy, maize, cotton, soyabean

C. Gram, mustard, groundnut, wheat

D. Maize, paddy, linseed, soyabean


Q. 68 Study the following statements about the effects of weeds on the crop plants:

(A) They help crop plants to grow healthily.

(B) They interfere in harvesting.

(C) They affect plant growth.

(D) They compete with crop plants for water, nutrients, space and light. The correct statements are :

A. (C) and (D) only

B. (D) only

C. (B), (C) and (D)

D. (A), (B) and (D)


Q. 69 When we add aluminium foil to freshly prepared sodium hydroxide solution a gas is produced. Which of the following correctly states the property of this gas ?

A. Colourless and odourless gas which extinguishes a burning match stick.

B. Colourless and odourless gas which promotes burning of a candle.

C. Brown coloured pungent smelling gas.

D. Colourless and odourless gas which produces a ‘pop’ sound. when a burning match stick is brought near it.


Q. 70 Aqueous solution of which of the following oxides will change the colour of blue litmus to red ?

A. Copper oxide

B. Iron oxide

C. Magnesium oxide

D. Sulphur dioxide


Q. 71 Which of the following· is a pair of exhaustible natural resources ?

A. Coal and soil

B. Petroleum and water

C. Minerals and wildlife

D. Natural gas and sun-light


Q. 72 Which of the following statements is true about endemic species ?

A. They are not affected by the destruction of their habitat.

B. They are found only in zoos and botanical gardens.

C. They are found exclusively in specific habitat.

D. Endemic species can never become endangered.


Q. 73 Which of the following pairs is related to the inheritance of characters ?

A. Chromosomes and genes

B. Chromosomes and mitochondria

C. Cell membrane and cell wall

D. Cell membrane and chloroplast


Q. 74 Out of the different combinations of terms given below, the correct combination of terms with reference to an animal cell is

A. Nucleus, plastid, cell membrane, cell wall

B. Nucleus, chromosome, ribosome, cell wall

C. Cell membrane, chromosome, ribosome, mitochondria

D. Cell membrane, ribosome, chloroplast, mitochondria


Q. 75 Consider the following sets of reproductive terms

(A) Sperm, oviduct, egg, uterus

(B) Ovulation, egg, oviduct, uterus

(C) Sperm, testis, sperm duct, penis

(D) Menstruation, egg,. oviduct, uterus·

The sets of correct combination are :


A. (A), (B) and (C)

B. (B), (C) and (D)

C. (C), (D) and (A)

D. (A), (B) and (D)


Q. 76 Which of the following elements must be available in water for the metamorphosis of tadpoles ?

A. Chlorine

B. Bromine

C. Sulphur

D. Iodine


Q. 77 Which one of the following is not the objective of teaching of Science at upper primary stage ?

A. Developing questJ.onmg and enquiring skills

B. Acquiring technological skills

C. Acquiring process skills

D. Acquiring scientific literacy


Q. 78 National Curriculum Framework (NCF) strongly recommends that Science education at upper primary stage should

A. prepare students for competitive examinations.

B. help students to be emotionally balanced.

C. help students to acquire computational skills.

D. follow constructivist approach for teaching and learning of the subject.


Q. 79 ‘Cognitive validity’ of Science curriculum at upper primary stage requires that it should 

A. be age appropriate and within the reach of students’ understanding level.

B. convey scientifically correct content.

C. nurture the natural curiosity and creativity of the learners.

D. enable the students to appreciate how · the concepts of Science evolve with time.


Q. 80 Which one of the following does not reflect the personality attribute of a person having scientific temper ?

A. Seeking evidence·

B. Biased opinion

C. Rational thinking

D. Open mindedness


Q. 81 NCERT Science textbooks for upper primary classes include large number of daily life related questions which have been left unanswered. This has been done so that

A. teachers have: a good pool of questions for assessment purpose.

B. students can send these questions to scientists to get the answer.

C. teachers can use these questions for home assignment.

D. students can seek answer to these questions by exploring different resource


Q. 82 While teaching the correct method of reading a clinical thermometer to class VIII students, Neha mentions the following necessary precautions to be taken:

Which one of the above precautions has been mentioned wrongly by the teacher?

A. Thermometer should be washed with hot water. before and after use.

B. Do not hold the thermometer by the bulb while taking the reading.

C. Ensure that before use, the mercury level in the thermometer is below 35 °C.

D. Read the thermometer keeping the level of mercury along the line of sight.


Q. 83 The section on ‘activities and projects’ included in the exercises· of NCERT Science textbooks for class Vlll primarily aims at

A. enhancing in depth understanding of the basic concepts.

B. keeping the students engaged during vacations.

C. assessing the students on practical skills.

D. providing opportunity to students for extended learning.


Q. 84 Major. objective of organisation of . Science Exhibitions is to

A. grade students on practical skills.

B. provide opportunity to students to compete with others.

C. provide opportunity to students to showcase their creative ideas.

D. provide opportunity to students to enhance their academic performance.


Q. 85 Four candidates appearing in an interview for the post of science teacher were asked to give a demonstration lesson to class VIII students on the topic ‘Pressure exerted by liquids and gases’. Following different approaches were followed by different candidates :

Which one of the above approaches will be most effective for teaching of the topic?

A. Detailed explanation of related concepts with the help of diagram on the blackboard.

B. Use of charts for _explanation of different concepts.

C. Organisation of hands-on student activities followed up with discussions.

D. Greater focus on . classroom questions during the lecture.


Q. 86 The technique of ‘classroom questioning’ in teaching of Science can be more effectively used for

A. ensuring levels of learning

B. developing problem solving skills

C. maintaining discipline in the Class

D. promoting creativity and innovativeness


Q. 87 Given below are the steps to test the presence of proteins in a food item.

These steps are not in correct sequence.

(A) Take a small quantity of food item in a test tube, add 10 drops of water to it and shake it.

(B) Make the paste or powder of the food to be tested.

(C) Add 10 drops of caustic soda solution to the test tube and shake well.

(D) Add 2 drops of copper sulphate

to it. The correct sequence of these steps is


A. (A), (B), (D), (C)

B. (B), (A), (D), (C)

C. (B), (A), (C), (D)

D. (D), (B), (A}, (C)


Q. 88 Which of the following terms constitute the female part of a flower ?

A. Stigma, ovary and stamen

B. Stigma, ovary and style

C. Stamen, ovary and style

D. Stamen, petals and sepals


Q. 89 How many muscles work together to move a bone?

A. two

B. four

C. six

D. number is not fixed


Q. 90 Choose the set that represents only the biotic component of a habitat.

A. Sand, turtle, crab, rocks

B. Insects, frog, fish, aquatic plants

C. Tiger, deer, grass, soil

D. Insects, water, aquatic plants, fish


Questions: 91 – 99

Renowned educationist Sir Tim Brighouse, observed that an outstanding school has four factors that are visible. “Teachers talk about teaching, teachers observe each other’s practice, teachers plan, organize and evaluate their work together rather than separately, and that teachers teach each other.” He continues : “One of the reasons I like that is that you can immediately see ways in which you could make it more likely that teachers talk about teaching.” Sir Tim then encouraged schools to focus on activities .that were low effort but high impact, describing them as “butterflies”. Some . examples he gave included rotating staff meetings around different classrooms with the host, at the start, describing the room layout and displays, or discussing other teaching techniques ·and approaches. With modem technology teachers could observe their own. lessons and then. when viewing them back, decide whether they want to share them with a mentor. The role of mentoring was vital and suggested that more schools could send teachers out in small groups to learn from colleagues in other schools. He said : “If this were widespread practice, if people were to attend to their butterflies, the outcome in terms of teacher morale and teacher satisfaction would be positive. We all agree that professional development is the vital ingredient”. 


Q. 91 In the mode suggested by Sir Tim, teachers may self-evaluate and self reflect

A. using technology

B. without technology

C. through a students’ surve

D. interviewing each other


Q. 92 ‘Teachers talk about teaching’ means that they

A. make some suggestions

B. discuss their own practices

C. criticize one another

D. freely change opinions


Q. 93 ‘Low effort but high impact’ in this context implies that schools

A. pay teachers a lower salary

B. extract more work for the same pay

C. decrease the workload and salary

D. create opportunities within the system for development


Q. 94 In this extract, it is observed that technology supports teachers to

A. improve students

B. conduct meetings for teachers

C. follow-up/remediation activities for students.

D. self-diagnose their practices


Q. 95 Here, ‘visible’ means

A. seen

B. obvious

C. appealing

D. bright


Q. 96 ‘Rotating staff. meetings in the classrooms’ permits teachers to

A. be informal with each other

B. miss some of them

C. share their own practices with others

D. keep busy all the time


Q. 97 A synonym for the word, ‘counselling’, from.the passage is

A. describing

B. discussing

C. mentoring

D. teaching


Q. 98 The talk by Sir Tim is about the

A. teachers who dress like butterflies.

B. visiting schools to socialise.

C. knowledge teachers gain for job growth.

D. schools who control their teachers.


Q. 99 “Butterflies” here refer to

A. the dress code

B. a practice of staff interaction

C. changing schools

D. going to classes in rotation


Questions: 100 – 105

Do you know how much you mean to me·?

As you grow into what you will be.

You came from within, from just beneath my heart

It’s there you’ll always be though your own life will now start.

You’re growing so fast it sends me a whirl,

With misty eyes I ask, Where’s my little girl?

I know sometimes to you I seem harsh and so unfair,

But one day you will see, I taught you well because I care.

The next few years will so quickly fly,

With laughter and joy, mixed with a few tears to cry.

As you begin your growth to womanhood, this fact you must know,

You’ll always be my source of pride, no matter where you go.

You must stand up tall and proud, within you feel no fear, .

For all you dreams and goals, sit before you very near.

With God’s love in your heart and the world by its tail,

You’ll always be my winner, and victory will prevail.

For you this poem was written, with help from above,

To tell you in a rhythm of your Mother’s heartfelt love !


Q. 100 ‘Do you know how much you mean to me ?’ is a question.

A. rhetorical

B. restrictive

C. convergent

D. divergent


Q. 101 An antonym for the word ‘harsh’ is

A. severe

B. mild

C. grim

D. clashing


Q. 102 In the expression ‘It sends me a whirl’, ‘it’ refers to

A. travelling far

B. growing up

C. new experiences

D. the real world


Q. 103 To ‘stand up tall’ is

A. growing up healthy .

B. be tail like the boys

C. being fearless

D. getting ambitious


Q. 104 The phrase ‘the world by its tail’ means to

A. be a good follower

B. overcome challenges

C. face one’s enemies

D. to avoid challenges


Q. 105 The poem addresses a

A. friend

B. daughter

C. mother

D. girl


Q. 106 A person sitting behind you in a cinema starts talking on the mobile phone and you want to tell him/her to stop. Choose how you will make the request.

A. “Stop talking so loudly !”

B. “Please don’t use the mobile phone inside the theatre.”

C. “can’t you not use the mobile phone; please ?”

D. “Could you possibly stop using the mobile phone here ?”


Q. 107 Example for homonym would be

A. aisle/isle

B. beer/bear

C. stale/stall

D. stock/stoke


Q. 108 Which is a lexical word?

A. love

B. is

C. the

D. might


Q. 109 While learning about the passive voice form, students learn about

A. use of by

B. position of verb

C. position of nouns

D. use of verb forms

Q. 110 Students can leave the school premises at 12.30 pm. Students ought to leave the school premises at 12.30 pm. The two given statements can be differentiated by drawing students’·attention to the

A. differences in the arrangement of words

B. meaning conveyed by the models/verb modifiers

C. the roles of the subject and object in both sentences

D. absence of change in the verb form ·


Q. 111 Which learning domain constitutes higher order thinking ?

A. remembering

B. understanding

C. application

D. evaluation


Q. 112 The process of word formation consists of

A. compounding and affixes

B. opposites and meaning

C. verbs and noun

D. using synonyms or euphemisms


Q. 113 When reading, to ‘decode’ means to

A. an action used in ICT

B. solving a complex puzzle

C. to analyse and understand

D. understanding a foreign language


Q. 114 Speaker 1 :’We had an enjoyable holiday this winter.

Speaker 2 Where did you go ?

Speaker 1 Where ?

Speaker 2 Yes, which place did you visit?

During the assessment of students’ speaking-listening skits; mark/s would be deducted during this exchange for


A. Speaker I

B. Speaker II

C. Both

D. Neither


Q. 115 While writing, ‘ellipses’ is a

A. phrasal verbs

B. semantic linker

C. adjectival form

D. prepositional phrase


Q. 116 If a longer piece of writing is brief, complete, in the third person, without digressions and emotional overtones and logically arranged, it is a

A. classified advertisement

B. memorandum

C. report

D. newspaper article


Q. 117 he politician had been making promises long before election time. The statement is in the tense.

A. past continuous

B. present perfect

C. present perfect continuous

D. past perfect continuous


Q. 118 ‘Gender sensitization’ in the school curriculum implies

A. children should be differentiated as boys and girls

B. sex education from primary school onwards

C. respectful approach towards defining gender roles

D. promote co-education in high school.


Q. 119 Identify where the collective form is an error:

A. host of angels

B. congress of baboon

C. clutch of ducks

D. shoal of fish


Q. 120 An example of a question to ‘funnel’ or restrict a respondent’s answer is

A. “What do you think of the weather?”

B. “How many books are there ?”

C. “Tell me about your most recent holiday.”

D. “What are your goals ?”


Questions: 121 – 129

Raja Ravi Varma was the Indian King and painter whose paintings . brought a momentous turn in Indian art. His works on great Indian epics Ramayana and Mahabharata brought the omnipresent deities to the surroundings of earthy world. This showed , excellent fusion of Indian traditional art with European realism. These paintings influenced future generation artists and also influenced the literature and films. His representation of mythological characters has become a part of the Indian imagination of the Classics. His style is criticized for being too gaudy and sentimental. Ravi Varma was born on April.29th, 1848 in Kilimanoor Palace in Kerala. Ravi Verma was brought up in an environment of “art and culture. At the age of seven he started painting the figures of animals, acts and scenes from daily life on the wall with charcoal. As he grew up, he was exposed to the famous paintings of Italian painters. Here he was using indigenous paints made from leaves, flowers. He enhanced his creativity by listening to the music of veterans, watching Kathakali, a folk dance form, going through the manuscripts preserve in ancient families and listening to the artistic interpretation of the epics. Raja Ravi Verma is most remembered for his paintings of beautifully sari-clad worried, who were depicted as graceful and shapely. 


Q. 121 The themes of Ravi Varma’s famous paintings were

A. deities

B. animals and habitats

C. natural scenery

D. female figures


Q. 122 He was especially able to access historical documents in the possession of

A. national museums that curate them

B. certain individuals

C. families who inherited them

D. his family members in Kilimanoor


Q. 123 As he matured in his craft, Ravi Verma’s·skills were influenced by

A. Italian artists

B. Indian cinema

C. Ancient manuscripts

D. None of these


Q. 124 ‘His style is criticized for being too gaudy and sentimental’ means that his work was characterized by

A. pale colours and sad atmosphere

B. unrealistic images

C. lacking intellectual and emotional depth·

D. strong colours and emotionally appealing


Q. 125 In the extract, ‘artistic interpretation of the epics’ means he was interested in

A. popular writing of his time.

B. unique rendering of old mythologies.

C. standard interpretation of the Indian epics.

D. unusual and rare myths found in legends.


Q. 126 Find a word in the passage which is the opposite of ‘minimized’

A. influenced

B. criticized

C. exposed

D. enhanced


Q. 127 The article is alan

A. fiction

B. essay

C. biography

D. autobiography


Q. 128 The focus is on the subject’s association with

A. sculpture

B. painting

C. music

D. dance (Kathakali)


Q. 129 A synonym for ‘omnipresent’ is

A. conspicuous

B. universal

C. partly invisible

D. magnificent


Questions: 130 – 135

The scene presented by a community of bees is the more astonishing, the more we become acquainted with its details. Each hive is a commonwealth, of which the queen is nominally the head, receiving the greatest honour and care from her industrious subjects. With a greater wisdom than can be claimed by men, these creatures allow no disputes about the succession to the throne to induce them to injure each other; but they require the parties themselves individually to settle the quarrel between each other, without prolonged interference with the duties of the hive. Indeed, they may be said with truth to have adopted the advice : “Let those who make the quarrels, be the only ones to fight.” Only one queen is permitted to hold office in the community at a time; but while her claims are undisputed, she is treated with singular respect and affection. Indeed, her presence, and the prospect of a future generation, appear the chief motives of the insects to exert themselves. )


Q. 130 The writer’s observation that the bees ‘settle the quarrel between each other, without prolonged interference with the duties of the hive’ suggests that he/she is

A. pointing a bee character

B. observing the traits of worker bees

C. appreciating the queen bee

D. condemning the behaviour of ill tempered human beings


Q. 131 ‘The prospect of a future generation,suggests that the writer is in his/her outlook.

A. ambivalent

B. nationalistic

C. sympathetic

D. appreciative


Q. 132 ‘The parties’ in this context means

A. participants

B. political organisation

C. individuals

D. bees


Q. 133 The queen bee has a position which gives her from her subordinates.

A. disregard but affection

B. aggressive defensiveness

C. exceptional reverence and devotion

D. caring support and indulgence


Q. 134 ‘To exert themselves’ means the bees are

A. having influence

B. quite aggressive

C. busy toiling

D. very exhausted


Q. 135 ‘Each hive is a commonwealth ‘ means the hive is

A. over-crowded

B. has a queen

C. self-governing

D. without a leader


Q. 136 Compounding is

A. stringing together older words like the formation of earthquake from earth and quake.

B. removing seeming affixes from existing words, such as forming edit from editor.

C. joining parts of two or more older words, such as forming smog, which comes from smoke and fog.

D. forming new words from existing ones by adding suffixes to them, like shame + less + ness -+ shamelessness


Q. 137 Constructivism is a theory where students

A. study a variety of dissimilar samples and draw a well founded conclusion.

B. form their own understanding and knowledge of the world, through experiencing things and reflecting on those experiences.

C. are facilitated by the teacher and use a variety of media to research and create their own theories.

D. construct their own learning aids, thereby · gaining hands-on experience.


Q. 138 E-learning refers to

A. acquisition of the mother tongue

B. learning English language as the first language.

C. use of electronic media and information and communication technologies

D. a language course for foreign languages


Q. 139 Examples of irregular verbs are

A. break – broke

B. train – trainee

C. walk – walked

D. happy – happier


Q. 140 A subject-centered approach is where learning experiences are organized around 

A. students’ interests

B. teacher’s subject competence

C. course content

D. educational technology


Q. 141 Standardized assessment means ___ assessment.

A. formative

B. summative

C. frequent

D. alternative


Q. 142 In the word ‘flower’, the phonetic transcription is

A. /fleur/

B. /fl::eur/

C. /flauer/

D. /flour/


Q. 143 The Gathering skill while reading is

A. note-taking

B. note-making

C. puzzling out

D. analysis


Q. 144 Multiple choice items consist of a

A. set of questions

B. options to choose questions

C. sequence of grammatical errors

D. stem and a set of options


Q. 145 Abilities for adaptive and positive behaviour that enable students to dell effectively with everyday· demands and challenges are

A. multiple intelligences

B. learning domains

C. life skills

D. learning methods


Q. 146 A self-contained unit of a discourse in writing dealing with a particular point or idea is

A. an essay

B. a poem

C. a paragraph

D. a statement


Q. 147 The following is a conditional sentence

A. I have to go to work.

B. lf the sea is stormy, the waves are high.

C. Shut the door.

D. It’s a sunny day, isn’t it?


Q. 148 Communication technology that enable sharing of educational resources within an institution

A. internet

B. intranet

C. telephone

D. audio-video cassette


Q. 149 Encouraging the student to love the world and to imagine a peaceful future; and caring for the student and encouraging the student to care for others is education.

A. distance

B. academic

C. values

D. vocational


Q. 150 A communication technique that requires the listener to feed back what they have heard in their own words, to confirm the understanding of both parties, is listening.

A. active

B. appreciative

C. informative

D. passive


Answer Sheet 
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Answer A D C A D B A B A C
Question 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Answer B C C A C C A B D A
Question 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Answer B A A C D B B C B B
Question 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Answer C C A C D A B A C A
Question 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Answer A D D B D B C C B D
Question 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Answer C D B B B D A B B A
Question 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Answer C D A D A D B C D D
Question 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Answer C C A C B D B D A B
Question 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Answer D A D C C A B B A B
Question 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Answer A B D D B C B C B D
Question  101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
Answer B B C B B B A A D B
Question  111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Answer D A C A B C D C C C
Question 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
Answer D C A D B D C B B D
Question 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
Answer B A C C C A B C A C
Question 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
Answer B B B D C C B B C A

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