CTET September 2016 Paper-II
Q. 1 Two students read the same passage yet construct entirely different interpretations of its meaning. Which of the following is true about them?
A. It is not possible and the students need to re-read the passage.
B. It is possible because the teacher has not explained the passage.
C. It is possible because different factors affect learning of individuals in varied ways.
D. It is not possible because learning is not meaning – making.
Q. 2 According to the National Curriculum Framework, 2005, learning is _________________ and _____________ in its character.
A. active; social
B. passive; simple
C. passive; social
D. active; simple
Q. 3 To enable students to think independently and become effective learners, it is important for a teacher to:
A. offer rewards for each success achieved by the students
B. teach students how to monitor their own learning
C. give information in small units or chunks
D. present information in an organised manner to make it easier to recall
Q. 4 If a teacher wants her students to acquire problem-solving skills, the students should be engaged in activities that involve:
A. structured worksheets containing multiple-choice questions
B. recall, memorization and comprehension
C. drill and practice
D. inquiring, reasoning and decision making
Q. 5 Knowing the naive conceptions that students bring to the classroom:
A. pulls down the teacher’s morale since it increases his work
B. does not serve any purpose of the teacher
C. helps the teacher to plan teaching more meaningfully
D. hampers the teacher’s planning and teaching
Q. 6 Which of the following factors affect learning?
A. Motivation of the learner
B. Maturation of the learner
C. Teaching strategies
D. Physical and emotional health of the learner
A. A, B, C and D
B. A and B
C. A and C
D. A, B and C
Q. 7 Meaningful learning is:
A. pairing and association between the stimulus and the response
B. imitation of adults and more able peers
C. passive receiving of the given information
D. active creation of knowledge structures from personal experience
Q. 8 Which of the following is not one of the primary tasks of a teacher for effective student learning?
A. Transmitting information to the students in a didactic manner
B. Knowing the concepts that students bring to the classroom
C. Requiring students to respond to higher-order questioning
D. Teaching students how to monitor and improve their own learning by effort
Q. 9 Which of the following statements about principles of development is incorrect?
A. Development depends on maturation and learning
B. Development takes place due to constant interaction between heredity and environment
C. Every child goes through stages of development, yet there are wide individual differences among children
D. Development is a quantitative process which can be measured precisely.
Q. 10 The unique interaction of _______ and __________ can result in different paths and outcomes of development.
A. challenges; limitations
B. heredity; environment
C. stability; change
D. exploration; nutrition
Q. 11 Which of the following is true of school and socialization?
A. School is an important agent of socialization
B. School does not play any role in socialization
C. School plays very little role in socialization
D. School is the first primary agent of socialization
Q. 12 Which of the following statements is correct about Jean Piaget’s theory of cognitive development?
A. Piaget argues that instead of progressing through stages, cognitive development is
B. Piaget has proposed five distinct stages of cognitive development
C. The stages are invariant which means that no stage can be skipped
D. The sequence of the stages can vary according to the cultural context of children
Q. 13 The context of ‘conservation’ as proposed by Jean Piaget means that:
A. it is important to protect wildlife and forests
B. certain physical properties remain the same even when outward appearances change
C. one can arrive at the correct conclusion by systematically testing hypothesis
D. taking the perspective of others into consideration is an important cognitive ability
Q. 14 Match the following in the light of Howard Gardner’s theory of Multiple Intelligence (Given in the figure):
A. a(v), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
B. a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(v)
C. a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(v)
D. a(iv), b(ii), c(v), d(iii)
Q. 15 According to Lev Vygotsky:
A. interaction with adults and peers does not influence language development
B. language development changes the nature of human thought
C. culture plays a very small role in language development
D. children learn language through a language acquisition device
Q. 16 Lawrence Kohlberg’s theory of moral reasoning has been criticized on several counts. Which of the following statements is correct on the context of their criticism?
A. Kohlberg has not given typical responses to each stage of moral reasoning.
B. Kohlberg has duplicated Piaget’s methods of arriving at his theoretical framework.
C. Kohlberg’s theory does not focus on children’s responses.
D. Kohlberg has based his study primarily on a male sample
Q. 17 Which of the following highlights assessment for learning?
A. The teacher assesses conceptual understanding of the students besides focusing on the processes of thinking
B. The teacher assesses the students by comparing their responses to ‘standard’ Responses
C. The teacher assesses the students based on the information given in the textbooks
D. The teacher assesses a student based on his/her performance in comparison to others.
Q. 18 ‘Child-centred’ pedagogy means:
A. the teacher dictating the children what should be done.
B. giving primacy to children’s experiences and their voices.
C. enabling the children to follow prescribed information.
D. the teacher leading all the learning in the classroom.
Q. 19 Which of the following statements describes Piaget and Vygotsky’s views on language and thought correctly?
A. According to Vygotsky, thought emerges first and according to Piaget, language has a profound effect on thought
B. According to Piaget, thought emerges first and according to Vygotsky, language has a profound effect on thought
C. Both view thought as emerging from the children’s language
D. Both view language as emerging from the child’s thought
Q. 20 Watching her grandfather arguing with her father for going on a school trip, the grandmother say, “Why can’t you be obedient like a good girl? Who will marry you if you behave like a boy?” This statement reflects which of the following?
A. Gender constancy
B. Gender stereotypes about attributes of girls and boys
C. Improper gender identification of the girl
D. Difficulties faced by families in child-rearing
Q. 21 Which of the following statements about assessment are correct?
A. Assessment should help students see their strengths and gaps help the teacher finetune her teaching accordingly
B. Assessment is meaningful only if comparative evaluations of students are made
C. Assessment should assess not only memory but also understanding and application
D. Assessment cannot be purposeful if it does not induce fear and anxiety
A. B and C
B. A and B
C. B and D
D. A and C
Q. 22 According to the Right to Education Act, 2009, children with special needs should study:
A. at home with their parents and caregivers providing necessary support
B. in special schools created exclusively for them
C. in inclusive education setups with provisions to cater to their individual need
D. in vocational training centres which would prepare them for life skills
Q. 23 An effective teacher in a classroom where students come from diverse backgrounds, would:
A. push students from deprived backgrounds to work hard so that they can match up with their peers
B. focus on their cultural knowledge to address individual differences among the group
C. ignore cultural knowledge and treat all his students in a uniform manner
D. create groups of students with those from the same economic background put together
Q. 24 Match the following principles of development with their correct descriptions (Given in the figure):
A. a(v), b(ii), c(i), d(iii)
B. a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)
C. a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i)
D. a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii)
Q. 25 Which of the following statements about cognition and emotions is correct?
A. Cognition and emotions are interwined and affect each other
B. Cognition and emotions are processes independent of each other
C. Cognition affects emotions but emotions do not affect cognition
D. Emotions affect cognition but cognition does not affect emotions
Q. 26 In an inclusive classroom with diverse learners, cooperative learning and peer-tutoring
A. should be used only sometimes since it promotes comparison with classmates
B. should be actively discouraged and competition should be promoted
C. should be actively promoted to facilitate peer-acceptance
D. should not be practised and students should be segregated based on their abilities
Q. 27 A teacher can address diversity in her class by:
A. accepting and valuing differences
B. using socio – cultural background of children as a pedagogic resource
C. accommodating different learning styles
D. giving standard instruction and setting uniform benchmarks for performance
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. A, B, C and D
B. A, B and D
C. B, C and D
D. A, B and C
Q. 28 A teacher asks her class to cover sharp edges of furniture with cotton and use “Touch and Feel” notice boards and books. The needs of which category of special learners is the attempting to cater to?
A. Visually – impared learners
B. Hearing – impared learners
C. Learning – impared learners
D. Socially disadvantaged learners
Q. 29 Gifted children are best catered to by educational programmes that:
A. make use of gifts and rewards to motivate them to perform according to minimum standards of learning
B. emphasize mastery of knowledge by recall
C. stimulate their thinking and give them opportunities to engage in divergent thinking
D. control their aggressive behaviour
Q. 30 Which of the following statements about student’s failure in schools are correct?
A. Students belonging to certain castes and communities fail since they do not have ability
B. Students fail in schools because appropriate rewards are not offered for their learning
C. Students fail because teaching is not done in a manner in which it is meaningful to them
D. Students fail because school system does not cater to individual child’s needs and interests
A. C and D
B. A and B
C. B and C
D. B and D
Q. 31 Neeta, a Class VII mathematics teacher, assigns a lot of survey-based projects to mathematics classrooms. The purpose of such activity is:
A. to promote problem-solving skills
B. to give an opportunity to students to collect authentic data
C. to break the monotony of the classroom
D. to use it as an alternate assessment
Which of the above purposes are true?
A. A, B and C
B. A and B
C. A and C
D. A, B and D
Q. 32 Which of the following terms in mathematics is defined?
C. Diagonal of a quadrilateral
Q. 33 Which of the following is not an important aspects in ‘Algebra’?
Q. 34 ‘Problem posing’ in mathematics means:
A. inability to solve problems
B. raising doubts in the class
C. solving problems
D. creating problems from the context
Q. 35 A good textbook contains a lot of:
A. questions for exploration
B. questions for practice
C. worked out examples
D. theorems and proofs
Q. 36 Consider the following statement;
“Every odd natural number is a prime number.”
Which of the following methods of “proof” can be used to prove/disprove the above statement?
A. Method of disproof
B. Direct proof
C. Proof by contrapositive
D. Proof by contradiction
Q. 37 Which of the following is not a contributing factor responsible for mathematics anxiety?
A. Nature of subject
C. Examination system
Q. 38 Which of the following numbers does not lie between -5/6 and 7/8?
Q. 39 The reciprocal of [(3/8)⁻² x (-4/5)⁻³] is:
A. (8/3)² x (5/-4)³
Q. 40 If (13² – 5²)^3/2 = 6³ x A, then the value of A is:
Q. 41 If x√243 = y√867, where x and y are co-prime numbers, then the value of (x-y) is:
Q. 42 The sum of all possible values of a, for which the 4 – digit number 547a is divisible by 3, is
Q. 43 A common factor of x⁴ – 256, x³ – 4x² + 3x – 12 and x² – 7x + 12 is:
A. x – 3
B. x + 4
C. x – 4
D. x + 3
Q. 44 On dividing the polynomial 8x³ – 6x² + 10x + 3 by (4x + 1), the quotient is 2x² + k, where k is equal to:
A. -3 + 2x
B. 3 – 2x
C. 3 + 2x
D. -3 -2x
Q. 45 If the product of (9x² + 15 – x) and (-1 – x + x²), if A, B and C are the coefficients of x³, x² and x respectively, then the value of (A + B – C) is:
Q. 46 When x = 1/9 and y = -3/4, then the value of the expression 81x² + 16y² -72xy is:
Q. 47 Abhi is twice as old as his daughter. Five years ago, his age was four times his daughter’s age. If the present age of the daughter is x years, then:
A. 2(x – 5) = 4(2x + 5)
B. 2(x – 5) = 4(2x -5)
C. 4(x – 5) = 2x – 5
D. 4(x + 5) = 2(2x – 5)
Q. 48 A sum of Rs. 6250 at 8% per annum compounded annually, after 2(3/4) years amounts to:
A. Rs. 7872.60
B. Rs. 7165.60
C. Rs. 7581.40
D. Rs. 7727.40
Q. 49 A person marks his goods 40% above the cost price and allows 40% discount on the marked price. His loss/gain percent is:
A. No loss/gain
B. loss, 8%
C. gain, 10%
D. loss, 16%
Q. 50 The angles of a quadrilateral are in the ratio 2 : 3 : 5 : 8. The sum of the supplement of the largest angle and the complement of the smallest angle is:
Q. 51 Two sides if a right triangle measure 15 cm and 17 cm. Which of the following statements can be true of the length of the third side of the triangle?
A. It is between 4 cm and 7 cm.
B. It is between 20 cm and 23 cm
C. It is less than 10 cm
A. A and C only
B. B only
C. A and B only
D. B and C only
Q. 52 If one angle of a triangle is 110°, then the angle between the bisectors of the other two angles measures:
Q. 53 In ΔABC, AB = 4cm, AC = 5cm and BC = 6cm. In ΔPQR, PR = 4cm, PQ = 5cm and RQ = 6cm. ΔABC is congruent to:
Q. 54 A tank is in the form of a cuboid. It holds a maximum of 540 m³ water. If the tank is 8 m long and 15 m wide, then how many metres deep must the water be when the tank is 2/3 full?
Q. 55 The ratio of the areas of two equilateral triangles is 16 : 9. If the perimeter of the smaller triangle is 63 cm, then how much larger is a side of the larger triangle than a side of the smaller triangle?
Q. 56 The area of a triangle is equal to the area of a circle whose perimeter is 6π cm. If the base of the triangle is 8 cm, then its corresponding height (in cm) is:
Q. 57 The mean of mode, median and range of the data:
2, 1, 2, 3, 3, 6, 4, 8, 14, 9, 4, 8, 4
Q. 58 Some students of your class are repeatedly not able to do well in mathematics
examinations and tests. As a teacher you would:
A. explain the consequences of not doing well
B. give more tests for practice
C. diagnose the cause and take steps for remediation
D. make them sit with high achievers
Q. 59 In a inclusive mathematics classroom, what would be your strategy for addressing the needs of visually challenged
A. Design alternate teaching-learning and assessment methods
B. Send the learners to a special educator
C. Offer them another subject in lieu of mathematics
D. Pair them with high scorers in mathematics
Q. 60 Which of the following assessment strategies can be used to assess learners’ interest in and attitude to mathematics?
A. Oral test, Paper-pencil test, Class participation
B. Checklist, Portfolio, Paper-pencil test
C. Checklist, Portfolio, Project, Class participation
D. Portfolio, Project, Paper-pencil test
Q. 61 Which of the following is not a purpose of conducting practicals/experimental activities on science?
A. They help in scoring high grades or marks.
B. They enhance understanding of science ideas.
C. They provide and opportunity for problem solving.
D. They help in developing manipulative skills.
Q. 62 A few small wax pieces are fixed at nearly equal distances on a flat strip of aluminium. On end of the strip is clamped to a stand and the other end is heated. Consider the following statements A and B:
A. Wax pieces begin to fall one-by-one in the order of their increasing distance from the flame.
B. Aluminium strip transfers heat from the end nearest to the flame to the other end Of the two statements given below:
A. Both A and B are inferences
B. A is observation and B is inference
C. B is observation and A is inference
D. Both A and B are observations
Q. 63 The students of class VII are asked the following question by a teacher:
“Two identical cubes of ice are taken out of a refrigerator. One is crushed and the other is left as it is. It is noticed that the crushed ice melts faster. What could be the reason?”
Which process skill is promoted through this question?
D. Controlling variables
Q. 64 A teacher of class VII demonstrates the following activity in the class:
“A leaf is put in a test tube and spirit is poured over it. Then the test tube is put in a beaker half-filled with water and heated till the leaf is discoloured. The leaf is then taken out and a few drops of iodine are put on it. The leaf turns blue-black in colour.” After this activity, the teacher gives some questions for the assessment of various indicators of learning.
Which of the following would assess ‘analysis’?
A. What care is taken to prevent damage to the leaf?
B. What care is taken while pouring spirit into the test tube?
C. What happens to the colour of the leaf when solution is poured on it?
D. Can this test be done without removing chlorophyll?
Q. 65 You want your Class VI students to figure out that the property of solubility of salt in water can be used to separate a mixture of sand and salt. As a supporter of inquiry-oriented pedagogy, you would:
A. provide the mixture of sand and salt to students, ask them to think up different ways of separation and help them in trying out their ideas
B. explain different methods of separation of mixtures first and then explain the separation of sand and salt mixture
C. ask students to hypothesize about different ways in which a mixture of sand and salt can be separated and then lead them to the correct answer through detailed explanations
D. take a mixture of sand and salt, demonstrate its separation and then ask students to repeat it on their own
Q. 66 Which among the following statements describes the relationship between science and technology?
A. Science is a boarder endeavour while technology is goal-oriented and often localespecific
B. Technology is a more creative process as compared to science
C. Science is an ancient enterprise but technology is relatively recent
D. Science and technology proceed independently and in isolation from each other
Q. 67 Which among the following is not a single flower but a group of flowers?
C. China rose
Q. 68 A bicycle is moving on a straight road at a constant speed. The wheels of the cycle exhibit:
A. circular, translational and periodic motion
B. circular and translational motion
C. translational and periodic motion
D. circular and periodic motion
Q. 69 Suppose you have a farmer living at a place having black soil. If the climate of your region is warm and you want to grow fibre-yielding plants in your fields, then which of the following would you prefer?
Q. 70 Choose the odd one out:
Q. 71 The function of saliva is to:
A. convert starch into sugars
B. prevent the food from entering the windpipe
C. convert carbohydrates into proteins
D. convert starch into fats
Q. 72 Which of the following statements is correct?
A. Both inhaled air and exhaled air contains oxygen
B. Inhaled air does not contain carbon dioxide
C. Exhaled air does not contain oxygen
D. Exhaled air does not contain carbon dioxide
Q. 73 Ritu is standing in front of a plane mirror. The distance between Ritu and her image is 10m. If she moves 2 m towards the mirror, then the distance between Ritu and her image is:
A. 8 m
B. 10 m
C. 12 m
D. 6 m
Q. 74 You have three test tubes X, Y and Z half-filled with different solutions, as X is filled with sodium chloride solution, Y is filled with sodium hydroxide solution and Z is filled with dilute hydrochloric acid. On adding one drop of phenolphthalein solution to each of the above solutions, you would observe the solutions in the test tubes as:
A. X is colourless; Y is pink and Z is colourless
B. X is pink; Y is pink and Z is colourless
C. X is pale green; Y is colourless and Z is red
D. X is colourless; Y is pale green and Z is pink
Q. 75 In our mouth, the arrangement of different types of teeth from front to back is:
A. canine – incisor – molar – premolar
B. incisor – canine – premolar – molar
C. canine – incisor – premolar – molar
D. incisor – canine – molar – premolar
Q. 76 In plants and trees, water goes up high due to suction pull. Which of the following phenomena causes this suction pull?
Q. 77 Which of the following is the reproducing part of ginger?
Q. 78 Which among the following liquids are conductors of electricity?
B. Sugar solution
C. Salt solution
D. Distilled water
A. B and C
B. A, C and D
C. A and C
D. C and D
Q. 79 Consider the following statements:
A. Plants can survive for some time even without photosynthesis.
B. Plants can survive for some time even without respiration.
C. Photosynthesis and respiration both are essential for the survival of plants
D. Photosynthesis and respiration both are simultaneous process in plants during daytime.
The correct statements are:
A. A, B and D
B. A, B and C
C. B, C and D
D. A, C and D
Q. 80 A block of wood is lying at rest on a table. What can be said about the force(s) acting on it?
A. Gravitational and frictional forces are acting on it
B. There is no force acting on it
C. There is a pair of balanced forces acting on it
D. Only gravitational force is acting on it
Q. 81 Which type of leaf pattern, i.e., leaf venation and root type are presented in bamboo?
A. Reticulate venation and tap root
B. Parallel venation and fibrous root
C. Parallel venation and tap root
D. Reticulate venation and fibrous root
Q. 82 Which of the following facts is nor correct about magnets?
A. Magnetic field lines originate from north pole and merge at south pole of a magnet
B. Attraction is a sure test of magnetism
C. Like poles of magnet repel each other
D. Magnetic field is stronger at the poles of a bar magnet
Q. 83 Match the following metals and non-metals with their uses. (Given in figure)
A. a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)
B. a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
C. a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
D. a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
Q. 84 Select the true statement from the following:
A. Melamine is a thermoplastic whereas bakelite is a thermosetting plastic
B. Bakelite and melamine are both thermoplastics
C. Bakelite and melamine are both thermosetting plastics
D. Bakelite is a thermoplastic whereas melamine is a thermosetting plastic
Questions: 85 – 87
A teacher of class VIII demonstrates the following activity in her class:
“The teacher takes a small amount of sulphur in a spoon and burns it. She then puts the spoon into a tumbler with a kid to ensure that the gas produced does not escape. After a few minutes, she adds water to the tumbler.”
Q. 85 What happens if blue and red litmus papers are put into the tumbler?
A. No change in both
B. Blue litmus turns red
C. Blue litmus remains red
D. Red litmus turns blue
Q. 86 In the above demonstrated activity, which substance is formed when sulphur dioxide is dissolved in water?
A. Sulphur hydroxide
B. Sulphuric acid
C. Sulphuric oxide
D. Sulphurous acid
Q. 87 Which process skills can be promoted through the above activity?
A. Observation and controlling variables
B. Observation, inference and measurement
C. Observation, classification and inference
D. Observation and measurement
Q. 88 A science teacher asked her students to put two drops each of oil and sugar solution on a flat surface. She then asks them to tilt the surface and observe the order in which of the drops reach the bottom. Which property of the liquids is the teacher trying to bring to the students’ attention through this activity?
Q. 89 You find that many of your class VI students believe that raw material for plant growth comes only from the soil. Which among the following would be the most appropriate strategy to counter this idea?
A. Show the students a well-prepared PowerPoint presentation on photosynthesis.
B. Explain in detail the process of photosynthesis and the chemical reactions involved.
C. Provide the students with a money plant in water and ask them to observe its growth and make an inference.
D. Provide the students with an interesting reading material on the process of food manufacture in plants.
Q. 90 The criterion of process validity of science curriculum requires that:
A. science should be taught as a specialised discipline with its unique characteristics
B. science should be presented as a value-free discipline uninfluenced by societal concerns
C. learners should be familarised with various natural processes
D. learners should be engaged in processes that lead to generation of scientific knowledge
Q. 91 Language is a tool because:
A. it is used for communication
B. it is used for processing ideas
C. it is used for thinking
D. it is used for conveying ideas
Q. 92 Children can best learn a language when they have:
A. a proficient language teacher
D. a good textbook
Q. 93 TBLT in second language teaching is:
A. Task Book Language Teaching
B. Tool Based Language Teaching
C. Task Based Language Teaching
D. Task Based Language Training
Q. 94 The second language should be taught through:
A. using the target language as much as it is possible
B. mother tongue and translation
C. learners’ background and talent
D. grammar and rules of language
Q. 95 There are 44 sounds in English. Out of these, how many sounds are vowels and how many are consonants respectively?
A. 5, 39
B. 22, 22
C. 10, 34
D. 20, 24
Q. 96 A speech community refers to a community which:
A. speaks different dialects
B. uses different languages
C. speaks the same language
D. connects by virtue of a link language
Q. 97 Pedagogical grammar is:
A. learning of meanings through form
B. learning of rules first and then the meanings of words
C. learning of grammar in context through use
D. learning of grammar through prose and poetry
Q. 98 When learners have diverse linguistic backgrounds, the teacher should:
A. form groups in accordance with their linguistic backgrounds
B. ascertain their learning styles
C. use multilingual approach
D. start the class with brainstorming sessions
Q. 99 Which of the following ways is not appropriate for teaching a reading text?
A. Teacher reads out and explains the text line-by-line
B. Learners are made into groups and asked to read by taking turns
C. Learners read individually and discuss with their friends the ideas of the text
D. Learners divide the text into small chunks and read
Q. 100 Post-reading tasks are meant for:
A. assessing the learning and connecting it to real-life situations
B. giving the meaning of difficult words
C. introducing the main idea of the text
D. explaining the grammatical rules in the text
Q. 101 Intensive reading is aimed at helping the learners read a text for:
A. improving study skills
C. pleasure only
Q. 102 Process writing approach could be described as:
A. horizontal approach
B. bottom-up approach
C. top-down approach
D. vertical approach
Q. 103 Abeera, an English teacher, describes a scene and asks the learners to draw what they have heard. This is a:
A. picture story
B. mutual dictation
C. picture dictation
D. picture composition
Q. 104 While teaching a ‘One-Act Play’, a tableau can be used as one of the teaching strategies. The tableau refers to:
A. a monologue
B. silent still image made by actors posing as characters
C. some musical instrument
D. dialogues between different actors
Q. 105 A teacher divides her class into pairs to exchange their notebooks and make corrections as per the direction of the teacher. What does she do?
A. Group assessment
D. Peer assessment
Questions: 106 – 114
Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow;
What we call Old Delhi is actually only about 350 years old, which is not terribly ancient, considering that the city was inhabited around 1000 to 800 BC. But it is a good place to look because Old Delhi has retained its character from the Mughal days. Most of what we call Old Delhi was built by the emperor Shah Jahan who, with characteristic modesty, called it Shahjahanabad. The city was built around 1640 – 1650 AD (so, by Delhi standards, it is actually young!) and remained the capital of the Mughal empire ever since. India was one of the world’s richest countries in that age, so the capital’s commercial quarter was one of the most important trading and business centres in the East. The original Chandni Chowk was built around a canal of the Yamuna, which passes down the street, forming a pool that reflected the moonlight and gave the area its name. The business of Chandni Chowk was business only. Some people say that it was the ruthless reprisals from the British after the 1857 Mutiny/War of Independence that destroy the peaceful character of Chandni Chowk; as did the looting that was the hallmark of the East India Company’s soldiers. Others say that the rot set in after New Delhi was created in the 20th century. Either way, Chandni Chowk is a mess now. It is overcrowded, parts of it are dirty and its wonderful historical mansions are now in disrepair. In an era when the world’s great squares have become landmarks, why should Chandni Chowk become a slum?
Q. 106 Study the following statements:
A. A canal used to run through Chandni Chowk.
B. Business and trading was done on the banks of the canal.
C. People visited Chandni Chowk to view the moonlight reflected in the canal.
Which of the above statements are true?
A. A, B and C
B. A and B
C. B and C
D. A and C
Q. 107 Shah Jahan named the new city of Delhi, Shahjahanabad. It shows his:
A. love of art
Q. 108 By Delhi standards, Old Delhi is called young because:
A. it was built around 1640-1650 AD
B. it was an active business centre
C. it was visited by young tourists
D. it was inhabited around 1000-800 BC
Q. 109 During the Mughal period, Delhi was very prosperous because:
A. it was built by Shah Jahan
B. it was looted by East India Company’s soldiers
C. a lot of trade and commerce took place here
D. it was ruled by the rich Mughals
Q. 110 East India Company’s soldiers were:
A. greedy but not cruel
B. noble and brave
C. cruel and greedy
D. cruel but not greedy
Q. 111 “…… a pool that reflected the moonlight …….”
Which part of speech is the underlined word?
A. An interjection
B. A pronoun
C. An adjective
D. A determiner
Q. 112 “….. terribly ancient, considering that …… “
The underlined word is a/an:
Q. 113 “Either way, Chandni Chowk is a mess now.”
The word ‘mess’ means the same as:
Q. 114 “…. a pool that reflected the moonlight …”
The word opposite in meaning to ‘reflected’ is:
Questions: 115 – 120
Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follows.
I love the Brooks which down their channels fret,
Even more than when I tripped lightly as they;
The innocent brightness of a new-born Day Is lovely yet;
The Clouds that gather round the settling sun
Do take a sober colouring from an eye
That hath kept watch o’er man’s mortality;
Another race hath been, and other palms are won.
Thanks to the human heart by which we live,
Thanks to its tenderness, its joys and fears,
To me the meanest flower that blows can give
Thoughts that do often lie too deep for tears.
Q. 115 The poet loves the brooks:
A. because he too can run briskly like them
B. because they flow between their banks
C. now more than when he was young
D. as they are overflowing their banks
Q. 116 The clouds around the setting sun make the poet:
Q. 117 During his lifetime, the poet has thought about:
A. love in human heart
B. the rate race of man
C. the dawn of the new day
D. mortal nature of man
Q. 118 Today the poet is thankful for:
A. the human heart which is full of joys and sorrows.
B. the beauty of the meaning flower
C. the palms won by him in the race of life
Which of the above are true?
A. A, B and C
B. A and B
C. B and C
D. A and C
Q. 119 The figure of speech used in line 1 is:
B. a simile
C. a metaphor
Q. 120 “The innocent brightness …..”is an example of:
D. transferred epithet
Q. 121 When children are introduced to English as a second language:
A. they should read first
B. they should begin with letters of alphabet
C. they should be exposed to language orally
D. they should begin writing first
Q. 122 Eclecticism in language teaching refers to using:
A. all the methods to teach language
B. appropriate strategies from various methods of teaching
C. the best method of teaching
D. technology to teach language
Q. 123 Which of the following approaches/methods advocates linguistic competence and performance?
A. Communicative approach
B. Grammar-translation method
C. Direct method
D. Structural approach
Q. 124 Global listening is not listening:
A. for specific information
B. without being constrained by preset questions or tasks
C. at different levels of comprehension
D. for improving recognition of spoken text
Q. 125 Which of the following activities needs to be taken care of for helping non-native speakers to produce the sounds of the target language?
A. Distinguishing the vowel from consonant sounds
B. Imitating the way a native speaker produces sounds
C. Ensuring that the words spoken are intelligible to others
D. Maintaining the regional interference
Q. 126 The concept of transformative – generative grammar was given by:
B. Ferdinand Saussure
C. Noam Chomsky
Q. 127 Tail question also refers to:
A. follow-up question
B. question tag
C. insignificant question
D. most important question
Q. 128 A teacher of Class VII while teaching the poem, The Solitary Reaper by William Wordsworth asks children to find how the last words of each line sound. What is she trying to draw the attentions of learners to?
A. Theme of the poem
B. Spelling of words
C. Rhyme scheme
Q. 129 To help the students overcome the problems of spelling mistakes, the teacher will use __________ as the teaching strategy.
A. loud reading
C. pronunciation drill
Q. 130 Grammar-translation method of teaching English heavily relies on:
A. form-focused teaching
B. meaning-focused teaching
C. direct teaching as a strategy for learning
D. language use as the main focus
Q. 131 Language proficiency refers to:
Which of the above are true?
A. A, B and D
B. A, B and C
C. B, C and D
D. A, C and D
Q. 132 Written description of a child’s progress that a teacher keeps on a day-to-day basis is:
B. anecdotal record
D. rating scale
Q. 133 A teacher of Class VI in a writing assessment task asked students to write on : “If I were famous for something…… “. This is assessment of a/an _______ answer.
Q. 134 A good language textbook should:
A. contain learner-centred materials
B. contain teacher-friendly instruction and content-related materials
C. incorporate language skills throughout
D. have more syntactical items in its content
Which of the above are true?
A. B, C and D
B. A, B and C
C. A, B and D
D. A, C and D
Q. 135 Kavya notes down the errors committed by learners of the class and discusses them once in a fortnight. What is this practice known as ?
A. Providing feedback
D. Error correction
Questions: 136 – 143
Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.
‘Although India has a tradition of women warriors, participation in the Salt Satyagraha was their first appearance in any modern militant political campaign and I could hardly suppress my excitement at the enormity of the occasion and my own good fortune to be amongst the first. As I attached my name to the pledge to devote myself to my country’s freedom battle, my hand shook a little under my tumultuous emotions. It seemed such a stupendous moment in my life, in the life of the women of my country. I felt I was tracing not the letters of my name, but recording a historic event. There was not much time for thought, however. The next instant we were filing out, taking the road to the sea, marching with quick steps. Great sky-rending cries or ‘Jai’ filled the air. Heavy-scented flower garlands almost smothered us. From the balconies and roofs unseen hands showered rose-petals until the road became a carpet of flowers. Often our match was stopped and bright-eyed women sprinkled rose water from silver sprays, tipped our palms with sandalwood paste and perfume and blessed us waving lights round our heads and faces for good omen.” The long narrow strip of sand that borders the city like a white ribbon was transformed this morning into another sea – a sea of human faces that swayed and dance and bobbed about even as did the deep azure waves that rimmed the shore. The city seemed to have disgorged almost its entire population onto the sands. It was not the struggling batch of seven that was breaking the Salt law, but hundreds and thousands now filling the water’s edge. And still they kept coming, thousands of women against them, striding like proud warriors, gracefully balancing their pitchers of maroon-red earth and shimmering brass that scattered a thousand hues as the sunrays struck them. Even as I lit my little fire to boil the saltwater, I saw thousands of fire aflame dancing in the wind. The copper pans sizzled in laughter while their bosoms traced the white grains of salt as the heat lapped up the last drop of water.
Q. 136 Participation in the Salt Satyagraha evoked in the author a feeling of:
Q. 137 The author took a pledge to:
A. launch a literacy campaign
B. fight against social evils
C. serve the poor people of India
D. be part of India’s freedom struggle
Q. 138 The warm welcome given to the Satyagrahis showed:
A. general resentment against British exploitation of the people
B. that the Indian people turn every event into a joyous occasion
C. the full support of the people for breaking the Salt law
D. people’s hatred of the British
Q. 139 “A sea of human faces that swayed and danced” means:
A. human faces resembling a sea
B. people dancing while bathing
C. people bathing and frolicking in the sea
D. a large number of enthusiastic people
Q. 140 Women lighted their little fires on the seashore to:
A. make tea and drink it to overcome fatigue
B. protect themselves from cold
C. boil seawater to make salt
D. express their anger against the British
Q. 141 The word which nearly means the same as ‘stupendous’ is:
Q. 142 The word opposite in meaning to the word ‘proud’ as used in the passage is:
Q. 143 Which part of speech is the quoted word in the following sentence?
“I could ‘hardly’ suppress my excitement.”
Questions: 144 – 150
Read the passage given below and answer the following questions:
Where does all our garbage disappear once it leaves our homes? There are four methods of managing waste: recycling, landfilling, composing and burning. Each method has its strength and weaknesses. Recycling is the process of turning waste into new materials. For example, used paper can be turned into paperboard, which can be used to make book covers. Recycling can reduce pollution, save materials and lower energy use. Some argue that collecting, processing and converting waste uses more than it saves. Landfilling is the oldest method of managing waste. Landfilling is to bury garbage in a hole. Over a period of time the process of landfilling has advanced. Garbage is compacted before it if thrown into the pit. In this way garbage can fit in each landfill. Large garbage bags are placed at the bottom of a landfill so that the toxic garbage juice does not get into the groundwater. But in spite of bags, landfills may pollute the underground water. Not to mention that all garbage stinks. Nobody wants to live next to a landfill. As landfill space increases, interest in composting grows. Composting is when people pile up organic matter, such as food waste, and allow it to decompose. The product of this decomposition is compost. Compost can be added to the soil to make the soil richer and better for growing crops. One thing that is easier to do is burning garbage. There are two main ways to burn waste. The first is to harvest fuel from the waste. The second is to burn the waste directly; the heat from this burning process can boil water, which can provide steam generators. Unfortunately, burning garbage pollutes the air.
Q. 144 Garbage recycling:
A. uses more energy than it saves
B. saves a lot of energy
C. saves only a little energy
D. wastes a lot of energy
Q. 145 Consider the following statements:
A. Landfilling does not allow water and air pollution.
B. Composting is better than landfilling.
Which of the above statements is/are true?
A. Both A and B
B. Only A
C. Only B
D. Neither A nor B
Q. 146 It is safe to dispose of garbage through:
A. burning and landfilling
B. recycling and burning
C. composting and burning
D. recycling and composting
Q. 147 Consider the following statements:
A. We do not use any energy in the process of composting.
B. Burning can be a source of energy.
Which of the above statements is/are true?
A. Only B
B. Both A and B
C. Neither A nor B
D. Only A
Q. 148 Compacting of garbage is done to:
A. avoid soil pollution
B. protect groundwater
C. remove the stink
D. save space
Q. 149 “… the process of turning waste ….”
The word ‘turning’ is a/an:
Q. 150 “There are two main ways to burn waste”
The underlined word is a: