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SBI PO 2017 Prelims Previous Year Paper

SBI PO 2016 Prelims Previous Year Paper
June 18, 2019
IBPS Clerk 2015 Prelims Previous Year Paper
June 18, 2019

SBI PO 2017 Prelims

Section

Questions

Marks

English

30 Questions (1 – 30)

30

Logical Reasoning

35 Questions (31 – 65)

35

Quantitative Aptitude

25 Questions

25

Data Interpretation

10 Questions

10

Q. 1 Which of the phrases given against the sentences should replace the word/phrase given in quotes in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, select ‘No correction required’ as the answer. The presence of new players in the basketball team is “to additionally attract” for the audience.

A. with add attraction

B. for adding attractive

C. an added attraction

D. of adding attraction

E. No correction required

 

Q. 2 Which of the phrases given against the sentences should replace the word/phrase given in quotes in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, select ‘No correction required’ as the answer. The dire need of amusement “to escaping boredom” made him cultivate various hobbies.

A. to escape boredom

B. as escaping boredom

C. escapes bored

D. for escape being bored

E. No correction required

 

Q. 3 Which of the phrases given against the sentences should replace the word/phrase given in qoutes in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, select ‘No correction required’ as the answer. We were credibly informed that the conman has “gave himself” to the police.

A. given over

B. given himself in

C. given himself over

D. given himself up

E. No correction required

 

Q. 4 Which of the phrases given against the sentences should replace the word/phrase given in qoutes in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, select ‘No correction required’ as the answer. We tempted Karen with many promises but nothing would “worked her up”.

A. working with her

B. works her over

C. works upon her

D. work on her

E. No correction required

 

Q. 5 Which of the phrases given against the sentences should replace the word/phrase given in qoutes in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, select ‘No correction required’ as the answer. The soil of India “saw growths” of one of the oldest cultures in the world that is the Harappan Civilisation.

A. seen the growth

B. saw the growth

C. had saw growing

D. see the growths

E. No correction required

 

Q. 6 Which of the phrases given against the sentences should replace the word/phrase given in qoutes in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, select ‘No correction required’ as the answer. A renowned organisation has “recent appointed” a highly acclaimed scientist to head new research and development assistants.

A. recently appointed

B. a recent appointed

C. is to appoint

D. to recently appointed an

E. No correction required

 

Q. 7 Which of the phrases given against the sentences should replace the word/phrase given in qoutes in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, select ‘No correction required’ as the answer. The serene lush green slope of the hill station “make it up ideal” venue for the meditation camp.

A. making so ideal

B. is ideal for

C. makes it an ideal

D. as of ideal

E. No correction required

 

Q. 8 Which of the phrases given against the sentences should replace the word/phrase given in qoutes in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, select ‘No correction required’ as the answer. Taking good care of yourself is paramount “for succession” of your goals.

A. about being a success

B. to the success

C. about being successful

D. to succeed

E. No correction required

 

Q. 9 Which of the phrases given against the sentences should replace the word/phrase given in qoutes in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, select ‘No correction required’ as the answer. The tambourine “to gain popularity” in the mid-18th century in Western Europe as an orchestral instrument.

A. was been popular

B. have popularity

C. has been popular

D. gained popularity

E. No correction required

 

Q. 10 Which of the phrases given against the sentences should replace the word/phrase given in qoutes in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, select ‘No correction required’ as the answer. Varun advised Aman that “give off” wrong pleasure is not self-sacrifice but self-culture.

A. gave up

B. gives away

C. giving through

D. giving up

E. No correction required

 

Questions: 11 – 20

Read the following passage and answer the given questions. Certain words/phrases are given in quotes to help you locate them while answering some of the questions. There is a market failure in cyber security. Solutions being suggested or “tried” include increasing transparency about data losses, helping consumers and firms to make more informed decisions about cyber security; shedding more light on how Internet Service Providers (ISPs) tackle malware infections they spot on customers’ computers; and using liability laws to force software companies to produce safer code. In transparency, America has led the way. Almost all American states now have data-breach laws that require firms to reveal any loss of sensitive customer information. In Europe telecom firms have been obliged to notify customers of breaches for some time now, and there are plans to extend reporting to a wider range of industries. Breach laws have ecouraged insurance companies to offer coverage against potential losses. This is helpful because they are in a position to gather and share information about best practices across a wide range of companies. A cyberinsurer advises companies on defensive tactics, and also in how to minimise the damage if something goes wrong. The American government should create a cyber-equivalent of the National Transportation Safety Board, which investigates serious accidents and shares information about them. Such a body could look into all breaches that cost over $50m and make sure the lessons are shared widely. But insurers are likely to remain wary of taking on “broader” risks because the costs associated with a “serious” cyber-incident could be astronomic. Insurers can deal with acts of God, but not with acts of Anonymous (hacking groups or acts of state-sponsored hacking). This explains why the overall cyber-insurance market is still small. Governments are weighing in too, not least by supporting private-sector efforts to clean up ‘botnets’, or networks of compromised computers controlled by hackers. These networks, which are prevalent in countries such as America and China, can be used to launch attacks and spread malware. In Germany an initiative called Bot-Frei, which helps people clean up heir infected computers, received government support to get started, though it is now self-financing. The American government has also worked closely with private firms to bring down large botnets. Another strategy involves issuing standards to encourage improved security. America’s National Institute of Standards and Technology published a set of voluntary guidelines for companies in critical infrastructure sectors such as energy and transport. Britain has also launched a scheme called ‘cyber-essentials’ under which firms can apply for a certificate showing they comply with certain minimum security standards. Applicants undergo an external audit and, if successful, are awarded a badge which they can use on marketing materials. Whether governments are best placed to set minimum standards is debatable, but they have certainly raised awarenes of cyber security as an issue that needs attention. They could also help to get more information into the public domain. Researchers have argued persuasively that collecting and publishing data about the quantity of spam and other bad traffic handled by ISPs could encourage the worst performers to do more to tackle the problem, thus improving overall security. Another debate has revolved around getting software companies to produce code with fewer flaws in it. One idea is to make them liable for damage caused when, say, hackers exploit a weakness in a software program. Most software companies currently insist customers accept end-user licensing agreements that specifically protect firms from legal claims unless local laws prohibit such exclusions. The snag is that imposing blanket liability could have a “chilling” effect on innovation. Companies that are selling millions of copies of programmes might take fright at the potential exposure and leave the business. Strict liability be applied only to firms which produce software that cannot be patched if a security flaw is found. There is quite a lot of that sort of code around.

 

Q. 11 Which of the following is the SAME in meaning as the word BROADER as used in the passage?

A. spacious

B. subtle

C. weaker

D. comprehensive

E. approximate

 

Q. 12 Which of the following is/are the argument(s) in favour of cyber-essentials?

A) It boosts transparency and promotion of firms.

B) The certification is given by hackers which makes it authentic.

C) Firms benefit from paying attention to cyber-security and so do users.

A. Only (A)

B. Only (B)

C. Only (A) & (C)

D. Only (B) & (C)

E. All (A), (B) & (C)

 

Q. 13 Which of the following is the SAME in meaning as the word TRIED as used in the passage?

A. convicted

B. accused

C. attempted

D. exasperated

E. None of the given options

 

Q. 14 Which of the following is the OPPOSITE of the word SERIOUS as used in the passage?

A. genuine

B. witty

C. noisy

D. insignificant

E. irresistible

 

Q. 15 Which of the following is the OPPOSITE of the word CHILLING as used in the passage?

A. promoting

B. reassuring

C. encouraging

D. fostering

E. All the given options

 

Q. 16 Which of the following best describes the author’s view of liability laws?

A. These will act as incentives for computer firms to produce more secure software.

B. These are pointless as they cannot be uniformly or strictly implemented.

C. These will not greatly impact computer firms as the financial profits from software are huge.

D. These are not an appropriate approach to cyber security.

E. None of the given options.

 

Q. 17 Which of the following can be said about government’s efforts with regards to cyber security?

A) Government’s efforts have been coupled with private sector co-operation.

B) Government’s efforts have been focused on destroying botnet infrastructure.

C) These are not worthwhile and too small in magnitude.

A. Only (A)

B. Only (B)

C. Only (B) and (C)

D. Only (C)

E. Only (A) and (B)

 

Q. 18 Why has the author mentioned the National Transportation Safety Board in the passage?

A) To urge America to set up a body to share data in cyber-related instances.

B) To monitor cyber security episodes whose losses are over a certain sum.

C) To publish and enforce standards for cyber security for sectors like energy.

A. Only (A)

B. Only (A) and (B)

C. Only (B)

D. Only (B) and (C)

E. All (A), (B) and (C)

 

Q. 19 Which of the following is/are (the) theme(s) of the passage?

A. Holding cyber firms accountable for flaws in their products

B. Cyber-crime infrastructure in certain countries

C. Ways to secure cyber-space

D. Limits of cyber-insurance

E. All the given options are themes

 

Q. 20 Which of the following is/are true in the context of the passage?

A. Breach laws can be helpful for organisations.

B. America is leading the way in terms of laws for disclosure of cyber-beaches

C. Pressure is increasing in software companies to produce safer products

D. Varied efforts are being made to create a market which values cyber-security

E. All the given options are true in the context of the passage

 

Questions: 21 – 30

In the given passage there are words highlighted in quotes. You have to decide if the word is correct (in terms of grammar and context). If not, find out the appropriate word/group of words from the given options. In case, the suggested word is correct, mark the option ‘The given word is correct’ as your answer. Everyone knows that (1) “sustenance” brainboxes is good for the economy. In Thailand, school reformers have an extra incentive to narrow (2) “contrasting” between rich people in cities and their poorer rural cousins, which have (3) “fulfilled” to a decade of political tension and occasional eruption of violence. For years shoddy teaching has favored urban children whose parents can afford to send them to cramming schools or to study abroad. Dismal instruction in the countryside has made it easier for city slickers from posh colleges to paint their political opponents as pliable bumpkins. The dangerous social divide is all the more reason to (4) “worry” about Thailand’s poor rating in an educational league table published in December. Thailand limped into the bottom quarter of 70 countries whose pupils participated in the mathematics, reading and science tests organised under the Programme for International Student Assessment (PISA). It’s scores have (5) “crushed” since a previous assessment in 2012, which researchers found that almost one-third of the country’s 15-year-olds were ‘functionally illiterate’, including almost half of those studying in rural schools. Thailan d’s (6) “error” performance is not dramatically out of step with countries of similar incomes. But it is strange given its usually generous (7) “allocation” on education, which in some years have hoovered up more than a quarter of the  budget. Rote learning is common. There is a shortage of maths and science teachers, but a (8) “overflow” of physical-education instructors. Many head teachers lack the authority to hire or fire their own staff. A big problem is that Thailand spends too much money propping up small schools, where teaching is the poorest. Almost half of Thai schools have fewer than 120 students, and most of those have less than one teacher per class. Opening lots of village schools once helped Thailand (9) “achieve” impressive attendance rates, but road-building and other improvements in infrastructure mean most schools are now within 20 minutes of another. Over the next ten years falling birth rates will reduce school rolls by more than 1m, making it even more (10) “fulfilled” for tiny institutions to provide adequate instruction at a reasonable cost.

 

Q. 21 Which of the following words should be used to correct the quoted words in the passage?

A. diluting

B. nurturing

C. alleviating

D. ornamental

E. The given word is correct

 

Q. 22 Which of the following words should be used to correct the quoted words in the passage?

A. contracts

B. characteristic

C. distinct

D. differences

E. The given word is correct

 

Q. 23 Which of the following words should be used to correct the quoted words in the passage?

A. preceded

B. managed

C. compelled

D. led

E. The given word is correct

 

Q. 24 Which of the following words should be used to correct the quoted words in the passage?

A. concern

B. apprehension

C. fearful

D. distress

E. The given word is correct

 

Q. 25 Which of the following words should be used to correct the quoted words in the passage?

A. deteriorated

B. sink

C. decomposed

D. declining

E. The given word is correct

 

Q. 26 Which of the following words should be used to correct the quoted words in the passage?

A. extreme

B. cheerful

C. dismal

D. inauspicious

E. The given word is correct

 

Q. 27 Which of the following words should be used to correct the quoted words in the passage?

A. employed

B. investing

C. spending

D. setting

E. The given word is correct

 

Q. 28 Which of the following words should be used to correct the quoted words in the passage?

A. satiety

B. surplus with

C. saturated

D. surfeit

E. The given word is correct

 

Q. 29 Which of the following words should be used to correct the quoted words in the passage?

A. complete

B. conclude

C. acquired

D. adhere

E. The given word is correct

 

Q. 30 Which of the following words should be used to correct the quoted words in the passage?

A. difficult

B. ambition

C. troubling

D. doubtful

E. The given word is correct

 

Q. 31 Five movies D, E, F, G and H are released on five different days of the same week starting from Monday and ending on Friday, but not necessarily in the same order. F is released on one of the days before Thursday. Only two movies are released between F and G. H is released immediately before G. D is released on one of the days after H. Which movie is released on Wednesday?

A. E

B. Either G or D

C. G

D. H

E. F

 

Q. 32 Four cartons A, B, Y and Z are placed above one another but not necessarily in the same order. Each carton contains a different drink – Pepsi, Coffee, Frooti and Milkshake – but not necessarily in the same order. Only carton B is kept between the cartons of Pepsi and Frooti. The carton of Coffee is kept immediately below carton of Frooti. The carton of Coffee is kept at one position below Z. What is the position of the carton of Milkshake in the stack?

A. Cannot be determined

B. Immediately below the carton of Frooti

C. First from the bottom

D. First from the top

E. Immediately above the carton of Coffee

 

Questions: 33 – 35

Study the following information and answer the given questions.

Each of the six stores P, Q, R, S, T and U sold different number of books in one day. Only three stores sold less books than U. P sold more books than R. T did not sell the highest number of books. S sold more books than R and P but less than U. The store which sold the second highest number of books sold 72 books.

 

Q. 33 How many books did Q probably sell?

A. 43

B. 58

C. 71

D. 65

E. 89

 

Q. 34 Which of the following stores sold the second lowest number of books?

A. T

B. P

C. S

D. R

E. Q

 

Q. 35 If the total number of books sold by P and T is 125, then how many books did P sell?

A. 51

B. 76

C. 68

D. 45

E. 53

 

Q. 36 In a vertical queue of 13 people, all facing north, K stands exactly at the centre of the queue. No one stands between K and W. Only five people stand between W and P. L stands at one of the positions before P but not at the beginning of the queue. How many people stood after W?

A. Three

B. None

C. Five

D. Can’t be determined

E. Seven

 

Q. 37 In which of the following expressions, does the expression ‘ C

A. P ≥ A ≥ L ≤ E ; C < L ≥ O > N

B. P < A ≤ L ≥ E ; C ≥ L ≤ O < N

C. P = A > L = E ; C = L > O < N

D. P > A > L > E ; C < L < O < N

E. P = A ≥ L < E ; C < L ≥ O ≥ N

 

Q. 38 A person starts from Point A, walks 30m towards south and reaches Point B. He then takes a right turn and walks 7m, he takes a right turn, and walks for 6m. He then takes a right turn and walks 7m. He takes a final left turn, walks a certain distance and reaches Point R. Point R is 17m to the north of Point B. What is the distance between Point A and Point R?

A. 18m

B. 23m

C. 21m

D. 27m

E. 13m

 

Q. 39 S is the only son of V. V is married to R. M is daughter of R. R is grandmother of A. How is S definitely related to A?

A. Uncle

B. Cannot be determined

C. Father

D. Son-in-law

E. Father-in-law

 

Q. 40 What should come in place of S and # respectively in the expression :

P > A$R < O < T;S < L < A#M, so that the expression T>M definitely holds true?

A. >,<

B. <,=

C. <,<

D. <, ≤

E. >,>

 

Questions: 41 – 45

Study the following information and answer the given questions.

C, D, E, F, W, X, Y and Z have to attend a wedding in January, April, September and December of the same year. In each month the wedding is on either the 11th or on 24th of the month. Not more than two of the given people have to attend a wedding in the same month. W has to attend a wedding on 11th of the month which has only 30 days. Only three people have to attend a wedding between W and Y. C and Y have to attend a wedding neither on the same date nor in the same month. C does not have to attend a wedding in April. Only two people have to attend a wedding between C and F. X and F have to attend a wedding on the same date. D has to attend a wedding in one of the days before X. Only one person has to attend a wedding between D and E. Less than four people have to attend a wedding between E and Z.

 

Q. 41 How many people have to attend a wedding between F and Z?

A. Two

B. Three

C. None

D. More than three

E. One

 

Q. 42 When does X have to attend a wedding?

A. 24th April

B. Cannot be determined

C. 11th January

D. 24th September

E. 11th December

 

Q. 43 If so the people are made to attend the wedding in alphabetical order starting from 11th January and ending in 24th December, then the schedule of how many people will remain unchanged?

A. One

B. Two

C. Five

D. None

E. Three

 

Q. 44 Who among the following has/have to attend a wedding before Y?

A. Both C and X

B. Only W

C. None

D. Both F and W

E. Only F

 

Q. 45 As per the given arrangement, four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which of the following does not belong to the group?

A. W

B. F

C. Z

D. Y

E. X

 

Q. 46 In the question, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by two conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given statements and select the appropriate answer.

Statement:

M < O < U ≤ R≤ T

P ≥ R ≤ I ≤ C < L

Conclusions:

I. L > M

II. O ≤ C

A. Either conclusion I or II is true

B. Neither conclusion I nor II is true

C. Only conclusion II is true

D. Both conclusion I and II are true

E. Only conclusion I is true

 

Q. 47 In the question, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by two conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given statements and select the appropriate answer.

Statements:

C < L = I ≤ N > G

I < M ≥ O > R > T

Conclusions:

I. C < O

II. G > T

A. Neither conclusion I nor II is true

B. Only conclusion I is true

C. Both conclusion I and II are true

D. Only conclusion II is true

E. Either conclusion I or II is true

 

Q. 48 In the question, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by two conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given statements and select the appropriate answer.

Statements:

M < O ≤ U ≤ R ≥ T

P ≥ R ≤ I ≤ C < L

Conclusions:

I. P > T

II. P = T

A. Only conclusion I is true

B. Neither conclusion I nor II is true

C. Both conclusion I and II are true

D. Only conclusion II is true

E. Either conclusion I or II is true

 

Questions: 49 – 53

Read the given information to answer the given questions.

Eight people X, G, T, C, P, J, A and M live on different floors of a building. The ground floor of the building is numbered one, the one above that is numbered two and so on till the topmost floor is numbered eight. All of them can perform a different form of dance- Kathak, Garba, Dandiya, Bhangra, Lavani, Odissi, Mohiniyattam and Sattriya.

(Note: None of the given information is necessarily in the same order.)

T lives on an even numbered floor below floor number five. Only three people live between T and the one who performs Garba. As many people live below T as above the ones who perform Lavani. The number of people living between the ones who perform Garba and Lavani is equal to the number of people living between C and P. C lives on an even-numbered floor above P. Neither C nor P performs Garba or Lavani. The one who performs Kathak lives on an oddnumbered floor below floor number four. P does not perform Kathak. The number of people between T and the one who performs Kathak is same as the number of people living between X and the one who performs Lavani. X lives on  one of the floors above the one who performs Lavani. X lives on one of the floors above the one who performs Lavani. The number of people living between C and X equal to the number of people living between T and M. The one who performs Odissi lives on an even-numbered floor immediately above the one who performs Bhangra. Only three people live between G and J. G lives in one of the floors above J. The one who performs Dandiya lives immediately above the one who Orient’s Sattriya.

 

Q. 49 Which of the following is true as per the given arrangement?

A. C performs Odissi.

B. The one who performs Garba lives on floor number six.

C. T lives immediately above J.

D. None of the given statements is true.

E. Only two people live betweeen M and G.

 

Q. 50 Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given arrangement and thus form a group. Which of the following does not belong to the group?

A. M-Bhangra

B. C-Dandiya

C. P-Odissi

D. G-Floor number eight

E. J-Floor number two

 

Q. 51 How many people live between the ones who perform Lavani and Bhangra?

A. More than three

B. Three

C. None

D. One

E. Two

 

Q. 52 Who performs Sattriya?

A. G

B. A

C. P

D. T

E. C

 

Q. 53 Which dance does M perform?

A. Bhangra

B. Lavani

C. Odissi

D. Mohiniyattam

E. Kathak

 

Questions: 54 – 58

Study the given information carefully to answer the given questions.

Eight people A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H were born in different years, viz, 1961, 1970, 1974, 1980, 1983, 1987, 1996 and 2000 but not necessarily in the same order.

Note: (A) All calculations are done with respect to the present year, 2017, assuming the month and date to be the same as that of the years of birth as mentioned above.

(B) Each person is assumed to be born on the same date and same month of the respective years. D was born after 1983 but not in the year 2000. The sum of the present ages of A and D is 64. The difference between the present ages of A and G is less than 5. B was born in an odd-numbered year. B is older than G. The sum of the present ages of F and C is 68. F is younger than C. H is not the youngest.

 

Q. 54 Four of the following five are alike in a certain way as per the given arrangement and hence form a group. Which of the following does not belong to the group?

A. E

B. B

C. C

D. F

E. G

 

Q. 55 How many persons are younger than E?

A. Two

B. More than three

C. None

D. Three

E. One

 

Q. 56 Who amongst the following was born in the year 1996?

A. E

B. C

C. A

D. G

E. None of these

 

Q. 57 If A’s uncle is 21 years older than A, then how old is A’s uncle at present (in years)?

A. 77

B. 68

C. 89

D. 64

E. 55

 

Q. 58 Which of the following represents the difference between the present ages of B and H (in years)?

A. 22

B. 9

C. 25

D. 32

E. 13

 

Q. 59 In the number 7853921, one is added to each digit exactly divisible by two. Two is subtracted from each digit exactly divisible by three. All other digits are kept unchanged. In the new number thus formed, which if the following digits will appear twice?

A. None

B. Only 5

C. Both 2 and 3

D. Only 3

E. Both 1 and 7

 

Q. 60 In a certain code language, ‘job requires expertise’ is written as ‘la nu si’, ‘expertise in area’ is written as ‘li bo la’ and ‘requires area inspection’ written as ‘si dm bo’. How is ‘inspection’ written in that code language? (All the given codes are two-letter codes only)

A. si

B. Either ‘nu’ or ‘si’

C. Either ‘bo’ or ‘si’

D. dm

E. bo

 

Questions: 61 – 65

Study the following information to answer the given questions.

Eight persons F, G, H, I, O, P, Q and R are seated in a straight line facing north. Each of them works on a different floor of an office building, viz, 7th, 16th, 18th, 23rd, 31st, 35th, 44th and 47th. None of the given information is necessarily in the same order.

● O sits fourth to the right of the one who works on the 31st floor. The one who works on the 23rd floor sits second to the right of O.

● Q sits third to the left of I. I is not an immediate neighbor of O. Q does not sit at any of the extreme ends of the line.

● Only two people sit between Q and P. The one who works on the 44th floor sits on the immediate right of the H. H is not an immediate neighbor of P.

● The difference between the numerical values of the floor numbers on which P and the one on the immediate right of P work is 13.

● Only one person sits between F and the one who works on the 35th floor. F is not an immediate neighbor of I.

● More than two people sit between R and the one who works on the 16th floor. O does not work on the 16th floor.

● H works on a floor lower than O.

 

Q. 61 Which of the following pairs represents the persons seated at the two extreme ends of the line?

A. G and the one working on the 7th floor

B. I, R

C. The ones working on the 18th and 44th floors

D. G, R

E. The one working on 23rd floor and P

 

Q. 62 What is the difference between the floor numbers on which P and R work?

A. 31

B. 4

C. 3

D. 16

E. 15

 

Q. 63 F is related to the one who works on the 47th floor following a certain pattern based on the given arrangement. In the same pattern, P is related to the one who works on the 44th floor. Who amongst the following is H related to following the same pattern?

A. The one who works on the 35th floor

B. The one who is on the immediate left of R

C. The one who is sitting second to the left of O

D. The one who works on the 16th floor

E. O

 

Q. 64 Fill in the blanks (respectively in the same order) in order to make the statement correct based on the given arrangement.

G __________ and Q __________.

A. works on the 47th floor, sits to the immediate left of Q.

B. works in one of the floors above H, works in one of the floors below F.

C. sits on the immediate left of I, works on the 44th floor.

D. sits second to the right of O, work three floors above O.

E. Other than those given as options

 

Q. 65 How many people sit on the left of the one who works on the 35th floor?

A. One

B. Two

C. None

D. Four

E. Three

 

Q. 66 What approximate value will come in place of X in the following equation?

X² – 137.99 ÷ 6 = 21.99 × 23.01

A. 23

B. 50

C. 42

D. 29

E. 35

 

Q. 67 What approximate value will come in place of X in the following equation?

X% of 400.02 + 12.93² = 285

A. 18

B. 15

C. 24

D. 34

E. 29

 

Q. 68 What approximate value will come in place of X in the following equation?

(3327.99 – 27.93) ÷ X = 110 × 5.99

A. 9

B. 1

C. 19

D. 15

E. 5

 

Q. 69 What approximate value will come in place of X in the following equation?

5520 ÷ 12.01 + √226 × 5.99 = X

A. 350

B. 550

C. 500

D. 450

E. 250

 

Q. 70 What approximate value will come in place of X in the following equation?

160.01 + 40 ÷ (16.5 ÷ 33) = ?

A. 310

B. 290

C. 250

D. 350

E. 240

 

Questions: 71 – 75

Refer to the graph and answer the given questions.

 

Q. 71 The number of students who opted for Course B in 2013 was what percent more than who opted for course A in 2013?

A. 45+1/6

B. 42+4/9

C. 38+8/9

D. 56+7/9

E. 62+1/9

 

Q. 72 What is the difference between the total number of students who opted for Courses A and B together in 2012 and that who opted for both the courses together in 2014?

A. 50

B. 30

C. 60

D. 40

E. None of these

 

Q. 73 In 2014, if ‘X’ students passed Course A and B each and the ratio of the number of students who failed in Courses A and B respective was 5 : 2, what is the value of ‘X’?

A. 190

B. 220

C. 160

D. 150

E. 180

 

Q. 74 What is the average number of students who opted for Course A in 2010, 2011 and 2012?

A. 225

B. 250

C. 230

D. 240

E. 260

 

Q. 75 The number of students who opted for Courses A and B in 2011 was respectively 25% more and 35% less than that in 2009. What was the total number of students who opted for Courses A and B together in 2009?

A. 600

B. 540

C. 575

D. 560

E. 650

 

Q. 76 The ratio of the numerical values of curved surface area to the volume of the right circular cylinder is 1:7. If the ratio of the diameter to the height of the cylinder is 7:5, then what is the total surface area of the cylinder? (in m²)

A. 2992

B. 3172

C. 2882

D. 3576

E. 3992

 

Q. 77 The time taken by a boat to cover a distance of ‘D-56’ km upstream is half of that taken by it to cover a distance of ‘D’ km downstream. The ratio of the speed of the boat downstream to that upstream is 5 : 3. If the time taken to cover ‘D-32’ km upstream is 4 hours, what is the speed of water current? (in km/h)

A. 5

B. 3

C. 4

D. 16

E. 8

 

Q. 78 Poona invests ₹4200 in Scheme A, which offers 12% p.a. simple interest. She also invested ₹(4200 – P) in Scheme B offering 10% p.a. compound interest (compounded annually). The difference between the interests Poona earned from both the schemes at the end of 2 years is ₹294. What is the value of P?

A. 1500

B. 800

C. 600

D. 1000

E. Other than those given as options

 

Q. 79 A man sold two articles – A (at a profit of 40%) and B (at a loss of 20%). He earned a total profit of ₹8 in the whole deal. If article A costs ₹140 less than article B, what is the price of article B?

A. ₹380

B. ₹280

C. ₹340

D. ₹375

E. ₹300

 

Q. 80 B is eighteen years younger than A. The ratio of B’s age six years hence to C’s present age is 3 : 2. If at present A’s age is twice the age of C, then what was B’s age 4 years ago?

A. 24 years

B. 28 years

C. 26 years

D. 20 years

E. 16 years

 

Q. 81 The time taken by A alone to finish a piece of work is 60% more than that taken by A and B together to finish the same piece of work. C is twice as efficient as B. If B and together can complete the same piece of work in 13+1/3 days, in how many days can A alone finish the same piece of work?

A. 32

B. 24

C. 16

D. 28

E. Other than those given as options

 

Q. 82 Out of her monthly salary, Ridhi spends 34% on various expenses. From the remaining, she gives 1/6th to her brother, 2/3 to her sister and the remaining she keeps as savings. If the difference between the amounts she gave to her sister and brother was ₹10,560, what was Ridhi’s savings?

A. ₹3740

B. ₹3420

C. ₹4230

D. ₹3230

E. Other than those given as options

 

Q. 83 A bag contains 63 cards (numbered 1,2,3…63). Two cards are picked at random from the bag (one after another and without replacement). What is the probability that the sum of the numbers of both the cards drawn is even?

A. 11/21

B. 34/63

C. 7/11

D. 11/63

E. Other than those given as options

 

Q. 84 A, B and C started a business and invested in the ratio of 3 : 4 : 5. After 4 months A withdrew 1/12 of the amount of what B and C had invested. If the annual income was ₹9200 then what was the share of B?

A. ₹4200

B. ₹3800

C. ₹3600

D. ₹2800

E. Other than the given options

 

Q. 85 In each question, two equations numbered I and II are given. You have to solve both the equations and mark the appropriate answer.

I. 3x² – 4x + 1 = 0

II. 15y² – 8y + 1 = 0

A. x > y

B. x ≤ y

C. x = y or relation can’t be established

D. x ≥ y

E. x < y

 

Q. 86 In each question, two equations numbered I and II are given. You have to solve both the equations and mark the appropriate answer.

I. x² + 14x + 45 = 0

II. y² + 19y + 88 = 0

A. x ≥ y

B. x < y

C. x ≤ y

D. x = y or relation can’t be established

E. x > y

 

Q. 87 In each question, two equations numbered I and II are given. You have to solve both the equations and mark the appropriate answer.

I. x² – 2x – 8 = 0

II. y² + 15y + 54 = 0

A. x = y or relation can’t be established

B. x ≤ y

C. x > y

D. x ≥ y

E. x < y

 

Q. 88 In each question, two equations numbered I and II are given. You have to solve both the equations and mark the appropriate answer.

I. 2x² – 9x +9 = 0

II. y² – 7y + 12 = 0

A. x < y

B. x ≤ y

C. x > y

D. x = y or relation can’t be established

E. x ≥ y

 

Q. 89 In each question, two equations numbered I and II are given. You have to solve both the equations and mark the appropriate answer.

I. x² = 121

II. y² – 23y + 132 = 0

A. x > y

B. x ≥ y

C. x < y

D. x ≤ y

E. x = y or relation can’t be established

 

Q. 90 A jar contains a mixture of milk and water in the ratio of 3:1. Now, 1/25 of the mixture is taken out and 24 litres water is added to it. If the resultant ratio of milk to water in the jar was 2:1, what was the initial quantity of mixture in the jar? (in litres)

A. 160

B. 180

C. 200

D. 250

E. Other than the given options

 

Q. 91 What will come in place of X in the then number series?

“17”, “9”, “10”, “16.5”, “X”, “90”

A. 44

B. 35

C. 48

D. 38

E. 33

 

Q. 92 What will come in place of X in the then number series?

“7”, “6”, “10”, “27”, “X”, “515”

A. 112

B. 104

C. 114

D. 96

E. 108

 

Q. 93 What will come in place of X in the then number series?

“33”, “40”, “29”, “42”, “25”, “X”

A. 40

B. 44

C. 52

D. 48

E. 46

 

Q. 94 What will come in place of X in the then number series?

“316”, “307”, “282”, “233”, “152”, “X”

A. 35

B. 25

C. 31

D. 41

E. 47

 

Q. 95 What will come in place of X in the then number series?

“5”, “9”, “33”, “72”, “121”, “X”

A. 169

B. 163

C. 171

D. 184

E. Other than those given as options

 

Questions: 96 – 100

Study the table and answer the given questions.

 

Q. 96 What is the average number of people who voted at centres B, D and E?

A. 1700

B. 1628

C. 1720

D. 1740

E. 1560

 

Q. 97 What percent of the total number of registered voters cast invalid votes at Centre D, if the number of invalid votes cast at Centre D was 10% of the number of votes cast?

A. 5.5

B. 8.5

C. 7.6

D. 6.5

E. Other than those given as options

 

Q. 98 At centres F, the total number of registered voters was 25% less than that at Centre C. At Centre F, the number of people who voted was 450 less than that at Centre C and 150 votes cast were declared invalid. What was the ratio of the number of valid votes cast to the total number of registered voters at Centre F?

A. 4 : 5

B. 3 : 4

C. 2 : 3

D. 6 : 1

E. 5 : 8

 

Q. 99 The number of people who did not vote at Centre D was what percent more than that who did not vote at Centre A?

A. 42+6/7

B. 35+2/3

C. 37+1/7

D. 43+5/8

E. Other than those given as options

 

Q. 100 What is the difference between the total number of people who did not vote at Centres A and B together and that who did not vote at Centre D and E together?

A. 80

B. 60

C. 50

D. 70

E. 116

 

 

Answer Sheet
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Answer C A B D C A C B D D
Question 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Answer D C C D E D E B E E
Question 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Answer B D D E A C C D B A
Question 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Answer A A B E E B E C B D
Question 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Answer E E C C E A E E D D
Question 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Answer E D B C E E E E E D
Question 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Answer B B D C C A E E B E
Question 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Answer C E B D D A C B C C
Question 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Answer B E E E D D C B D C
Question 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Answer B B B C B C C C C E

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