SSC MTS Tier-I 12 October 2017 Shift-II Previous Year Paper

SSC MTS Tier 1 2017 12 Oct Shift 2

Q. 1 In the following question, select the number which can be placed at the sign of question mark (?) from the given alternatives.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 4

D. 6

 

Q. 2 How many quadrilaterals are there in the given figure?

A. 3

B. 5

C. 4

D. 6

 

Q. 3 A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as shown in the given two matrices. The columns and rows of Matrix- I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix – II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, for example, ‘Y’ can be represented by 20, 78, etc, and ‘F’ can be represented by 11, 85, etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set for the word “HATE”.

A. 86, 40, 33, 13

B. 34, 58, 67, 31

C. 59, 41, 65, 31

D. 86, 59, 00, 68

 

Q. 4 From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is

hidden/embedded.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 5 Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 6 If a mirror is placed on the line AB, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the given figure?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 7 A piece of paper is folded and punched as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 8 If ‘Z’ means ‘-‘, ‘T’ means ‘÷’, ‘F’ means ‘×’ and’V’ means ‘+’, then

12 T 5 F 15 V 3 =?

A. 33

B. 36

C. 39

D. 49

 

Q. 9 If 4+9+3+6= 9463 and 1+5+7+6= 5167, then

9+5+4+2= ?

A. 5942

B. 9524

C. 5924

D. 2459

 

Q. 10 Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary.

1. Burke

2. Blues

3. Blown

4. Blast

5. Bride

A. 43251

B. 42315

C. 32145

D. 41235

 

Q. 11 In the following question, select the missing number from the given series.

70, 80, 100, 130, 140, 160, ?

A. 170

B. 190

C. 200

D. 210

 

Q. 12 A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

D, F, I, M, R, ?

A. U

B. V

C. W

D. X

 

Q. 13 In the following question, select the odd word from the given alternatives.

A. Actor

B. Film

C. Musician

D. Director

 

Q. 14 In the following question, select the odd number pair from the given alternatives.

A. 20, 63

B. 40, 123

C. 15, 45

D. 30, 93

 

Q. 15 In the following question, select the odd letters from the given alternatives.

A. FGED

B. LMKJ

C. TUSQ

D. UVTS

 

Q. 16 Identify the diagram that best represents the relationship among the given classes.

Cat, Kitten, Dog

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 17 In the following question, select the related word from the given alternatives.

Time : Second : : Energy : ?

A. Farad

B. Mole

C. Kelvin

D. Joule

 

Q. 18 In the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.

22 : 55 : : 48 : ?

A. 105

B. 115

C. 110

D. 120

 

Q. 19 In the following question, select the related letters from the given alternatives.

COPY : AMNW : : XOHO : ?

A. VMFM

B. WNFN

C. VNGN

D. WHGN

 

Q. 20 In the following question, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word.

MOMENTUM

A. MENTS

B. NOTE

C. TONE

D. MUTE

 

Q. 21 Present age of L and M is in ratio 8 : 11. After 6 years age of L will 38 years. What is the present age (in years) of M?

A. 44

B. 50

C. 32

D. 36

 

Q. 22 If North is called West, West is called South and South is called East, then what will South- West be called as?

A. South-East

B. North-East

C. North

D. West

 

Q. 23 In the following question below are given some statements followed by some conclusions. Taking the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts, read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusion logically follows the given statements.

Statements:

I. Some green are big.

II. All big are blue.

Conclusions:

I. Some blue are green.

II. Some big are green.

A. Only conclusion (I) follows.

B. Only conclusion (II) follows.

C. Both conclusion follow.

D. Neither conclusion (I) nor conclusion (II) follows.

 

Q. 24 In a certain code language, “FIX” is written as “GKA”. How is “GEL” written in that code language?

A. HFO

B. FFO

C. HGO

D. HFM

 

Q. 25 In a certain code language, “TAB” is written as “20” and “RAT” is written as “36”. How is “DOG” written in that code language?

A. 22

B. 23

C. 24

D. 26

 

Q. 26 How many factors of 60 are prime numbers?

A. 4

B. 5

C. 3

D. 2

 

Q. 27 What is the value of problem given in the figure?

A. √23 – √11

B. √15 – √9

C. √14 + √10

D. √17 + √7

 

Q. 28 What is the HCF of 3⁴×5⁵ and 3²×5⁶?

A. 34 x 56

B. 32 x 55

C. 32 x 56

D. 34 x 55

 

Q. 29 What is the value of 102 x 98?

A. 9998

B. 10002

C. 9994

D. 9996

 

Q. 30 How many zeroes are there at the end of product 35 x 27 x 52?

A. 7

B. 6

C. 2

D. 4

 

Q. 31 What is the value of problem given in the figure ?

A. √15 + √8

B. √21 + √2

C. √22 + √11

D. √29 + √11

 

Q. 32 A and B together can do a piece of work in 40 days and A alone can do it in 6080 days. B alone can do the work in how many days?

A. 80

B. 90

C. 120

D. 75

 

Q. 33 If 4/5th of a cistern is filled in 20 minute, then what is the time (in minutes) needed to fill the remaining part?

A. 5

B. 10

C. 12

D. 15

 

Q. 34 The lengths of two diagonals of a rhombus are 12 cm and 16 cm. What is the side (in cm) of the rhombus?

A. 10

B. 20

C. 10√2

D. 20√2

 

Q. 35 The marked price of a chair is Rs 600 and a customer pays Rs 540 for it. What is the discount percentage?

A. 10

B. 18

C. 20

D. 21

 

Q. 36 What is the net discount (in %) for successive discounts of 10% and 20%?

A. 23

B. 70

C. 75

D. 28

 

Q. 37 Two numbers are in the ratio of 3 : 4. If 12 is subtracted from each, then the new ratio becomes 9 : 14. What are the two numbers?

A. 30 and 40

B. 24 and 36

C. 45 and 60

D. 60 and 80

 

Q. 38 If A/2 = B/5 = C/7, then what is A : B : C?

A. 2 : 5 : 7

B. 2 : 5 : 12

C. 5 : 2 : 7

D. 7 : 5 : 2

 

Q. 39 The average of 10 numbers is 20 and that of other 30 numbers is 40. What is the average of all the numbers?

A. 35

B. 40

C. 45

D. 50

 

Q. 40 If the cost price of 15 articles is equal to the selling price of 12 articles, then what is the profit percentage?

A. 10

B. 20

C. 25

D. 15

 

Q. 41 By selling an article of Rs 850, a shopkeeper gains 70%. To gain 30% what should be the selling price?

A. 650

B. 720

C. 470

D. 570

 

Q. 42 If the price of an article is increased by 25%, then to restore its former value the new price must be decreased by how much percent?

A. 10

B. 20

C. 25

D. 12.5

 

Q. 43 What is the value of 30% of 40% of 2400?

A. 288

B. 72

C. 144

D. 108

 

Q. 44 Speed of a boat along the current and against the current are 11 km/hr and 6 km/hr respectively. What is the speed (in km/hr) of the current?

A. 1.5

B. 2.5

C. 3

D. 4.5

 

Q. 45 A car travels some distance at a speed of 8 km/hr and returns at a speed of 12 km/hr. If the total time taken by the car is 15 hours, then what is the distance (in km)?

A. 48

B. 60

C. 56

D. 72

 

Q. 46 An amount invested at simple interest gives Rs 4320 interest at rate of 18% in 4 years. What is the principal (in Rs)?

A. 5000

B. 5500

C. 6000

D. 6500

 

Q. 47 The table given below shows the revenue (in crores) of a company from years 2010 to 2016. What is the percentage change in the revenue from year 2010 to 2014?

A. 225

B. 150

C. 100

D. 125

 

Q. 48 The table given below shows the revenue (in crores) of a company from years 2010 to 2016. What is the percentage change in revenue from year 2011 to 2015?

A. 75

B. 175

C. 16.67

D. 25

 

Q. 49 The table given below shows the revenue (in crores) of a company from years 2010 to 2016. What is the percentage revenue (in crores) from year 2010 to 2014?

A. 85

B. 84

C. 90

D. 82.5

 

Q. 50 The table given below shows the revenue (in crores) of a company from years 2010 to 2016. In how many years, the revenue was more than that in year 2013?

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 5

 

Q. 51 In the following question, some part of sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select ‘No Error’.

Several people were booked for arson(1)/ rioting, illegal assembly, attempting to (2)/

murder, and obstructing officers discharging their duty. (3)/ No Error (4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 52 In the following question, some part of sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select ‘No Error’.

The police said that accused (1)/ were arrested from various places (2)/ in Sirsa after they identified. (3)/ No Error (4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 53 In the following question, the sentence given with blank to be filled with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option.

Akanksha is annoyed ______ me.

A. with

B. to

C. against

D. over

 

Q. 54 In the following question, the sentence given with blank to be filled with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option.

I asked them her for some money, but she ______ .

A. has not

B. had not

C. had none

D. has none

 

Q. 55 In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

Abolition

A. Legalization

B. Confirmation

C. Promotion

D. Cancellation

 

Q. 56 In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

Slack

A. Stiff

B. Feeble

C. Rigid

D. Tight

 

Q. 57 In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

Wobble

A. Stabilize

B. Balance

C. Vibrate

D. Be still

 

Q. 58 In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the one which is opposite in meaning of the given word.

Disdain

A. Scorn

B. Dislike

C. Favour

D. Pride

 

Q. 59 In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the one which is opposite in meaning of the given word.

Endeavour

A. Aim

B. Effort

C. Laziness

D. Venture

 

Q. 60 In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the one which is opposite in meaning of the given word.

Fabricate

A. Build

B. Break

C. Contrive

D. Erect

 

Q. 61 In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of Idiom/Phrase.

A turning point

A. Anything that brings about changes

B. Become out of control

C. To be excited about working

D. Something terrifying

 

Q. 62 In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of Idiom/Phrase.

All moonshine

A. Far from reality

B. Close together

C. Sentimental

D. On the height

 

Q. 63 Improve the bracketed part of the sentence.

Interestingly, the two women (was) very different personalities.

A. is

B. are

C. will

D. No improvement

 

Q. 64 Improve the bracketed part of the sentence.

Yet, their combined achievements also (bought into) focus the fact that the next best

woman shuttler in India is now here close to them in potential.

A. bring in into

B. brought in into

C. bring into

D. No improvement

 

Q. 65 In the following question, out of four given alternatives, select the alternative which is best substitute of the phrase.

A person employed in armed forces

A. Principal

B. Personnel

C. Kennel

D. Cannel

 

Q. 66 In the following question, out of four given alternatives, select the alternative which is best substitute of the phrase.

A place where clothes are kept.

A. Bathrobe

B. Geoprobe

C. Anaerobe

D. Wardrobe

 

Q. 67 In the following question, a word has been written in four different ways out of which one is correctly spelt. Select the correctly spelt word.

A. Tewelth

B. Twelfth

C. Tvefth

D. Twelth

 

Q. 68 In the following question, a word has been written in four different ways out of which one is correctly spelt. Select the correctly spelt word.

A. Skillfull

B. Skilsful

C. Skillful

D. Scilful

 

Q. 69 Rearrange the parts of the sentence in correct order.

The realization of the

P: waste disposal has can be

Q: negative environmental effect that

R: a very sobering experience

A. QPR

B. PRQ

C. QRP

D. RPQ

 

Q. 70 Rearrange the parts of the sentence in correct order.

Our bad times

P: and bad friends

Q: about our good

R: makes us realize

A. PRQ

B. RQP

C. QPR

D. PQR

 

Q. 71 In the following passage some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer for the given blank out of the four alternatives.

Unity in diversity means _____ in the varieties. India is the best country proving this concept for _____ years. India is a country where it is very clear to see unity in diversity because people of many religion, race, culture, and tradition live together without affecting each other’s feelings and beliefs to their religion. Unity in diversity _____ on the existence of unity even after lots of differences of cultural, social, physical, linguistic, religious, political, ideollogical, psychological, etc. A number of diversities make unity more _____. People in India are united in spite of much diversity of races, religions, castes, sub-castes, communities, language and dialects. People in India are highly spiritual and God- _____ in nature so they give respect to everyone’s religion. Unity in diversity means _____ in the varieties.

A. oneness

B. openness

C. uniqueness

D. emptiness

 

Q. 72 In the following passage some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer for the given blank out of the four alternatives.

Unity in diversity means _____ in the varieties. India is the best country proving this concept for _____ years. India is a country where it is very clear to see unity in diversity because people of many religion, race, culture, and tradition live together without affecting each other’s feelings and beliefs to their religion. Unity in diversity _____ on the existence of unity even after lots of differences of cultural, social, physical, linguistic, religious, political, ideollogical, psychological, etc. A number of diversities make unity more _____. People in India are united in spite of much diversity of races, religions, castes, sub-castes, communities, language and dialects. People in India are highly spiritual and God- _____ in nature so they give respect to everyone’s religion. proving this concept for _____ years.

A. much

B. many

C. most

D. ample

 

Q. 73 In the following passage some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer for the given blank out of the four alternatives.

Unity in diversity means _____ in the varieties. India is the best country proving this concept for _____ years. India is a country where it is very clear to see unity in diversity because people of many religion, race, culture, and tradition live together without affecting each other’s feelings and beliefs to their religion. Unity in diversity _____ on the existence of unity even after lots of differences of cultural, social, physical, linguistic, religious, political, ideollogical, psychological, etc. A number of diversities make unity more _____. People in India are united in spite of much diversity of races, religions, castes, sub-castes, communities, language and dialects. People in India are highly spiritual and God- _____ in nature so they give respect to everyone’s religion. Unity in diversity _____ on the existence

A. ensures

B. directs

C. focuses

D. sustain

 

Q. 74 In the following passage some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer for the given blank out of the four alternatives. 

Unity in diversity means _____ in the varieties. India is the best country proving this concept for _____ years. India is a country where it is very clear to see unity in diversity because people of many religion, race, culture, and tradition live together without affecting each other’s feelings and beliefs to their religion. Unity in diversity _____ on the existence of unity even after lots of differences of cultural, social, physical, linguistic, religious, political, ideollogical, psychological, etc. A number of diversities make unity more _____. People in India are united in spite of much diversity of races, religions, castes, sub-castes, communities, language and dialects. People in India are highly spiritual and God- _____ in nature so they give respect to everyone’s religion. A number of diversities make unity more _____.

A. simple

B. neutral

C. indifferent

D. complex

 

Q. 75 In the following passage some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer for the given blank out of the four alternatives.

Unity in diversity means _____ in the varieties. India is the best country proving this concept for _____ years. India is a country where it is very clear to see unity in diversity because people of many religion, race, culture, and tradition live together without affecting each other’s feelings and beliefs to their religion. Unity in diversity _____ on the existence of unity even after lots of differences of cultural, social, physical, linguistic, religious, political, ideollogical, psychological, etc. A number of diversities make unity more _____. People in India are united in spite of much diversity of races, religions, castes, sub-castes, communities, language and dialects. People in India are highly spiritual and God- _____ in nature so they give respect to everyone’s religion. God- _____ in nature so they give respect

A. fearing

B. bearing

C. rearing

D. gearing

 

Q. 76 What is the full form of PDS?

A. Public Distribution System

B. Private Distribution System

C. Public Development System

D. Private Development System

 

Q. 77 Which of the following are the modern forms of money?

A. Currency – paper notes and coins

B. Precious metals such as gold, silver and copper

C. Grains and cattle

D. None of these

 

Q. 78 Which fundamental right allows citizens to move to the court if they believe that any of their fundamental rights have been violated by the state?

A. Rights to Equality

B. Rights to freedom

C. Rights against Exploitation

D. Right to Constitutional Remedies

 

Q. 79 Which kind of government provides a method to deal with differences and conflicts?

A. Autocratic

B. Aristocratic

C. Monarchic

D. Democratic

 

Q. 80 To which dynasty did Mahadji Scindia and Nana Phadnis belong?

A. Maratha

B. Wodeyar

C. Mughal

D. Cholas

 

Q. 81 What was the title of three-volume history of Akbar’s reign written by Abul Fazl? 

A. Akbarnama

B. Babarnama

C. Safar-i-Akbar

D. Akbar-Darbar

 

Q. 82 What is the zone between the Arctic Circle and the North pole in the Northern Hemisphere and the Antarctic Circle and the South Pole in Southern Hemisphere called?

A. Temperate Zone

B. Frigid Zone

C. Torrid Zone

D. None of these

 

Q. 83 Which is the second largest ocean in the world?

A. India Ocean

B. Atlantic Ocean

C. Pacific Ocean

D. Southern Ocean

 

Q. 84 Major requirement of Protein in the body is for _____.

A. Energy

B. Growth

C. Repair

D. Immunity

 

Q. 85 The highest unit of classification is ______.

A. Species

B. Family

C. Class

D. Kingdom

 

Q. 86 The blood groups in man were discovered by ______.

A. Mendel

B. Francis Nelson

C. Aristotle

D. Landsteiner

 

Q. 87 Which of the following relation is correct?

A. Speed = Distance x Time

B. Speed = Distance/Time

C. Speed = Time/Distance

D. Speed = 1/Distance x Time

 

Q. 88 What happens when a bulb gets fused?

A. Filament becomes cold

B. Filament gets broken

C. Filament becomes thick

D. Filament becomes thin

 

Q. 89 Coding is the process of ______.

A. Executing a program

B. Multitasking

C. Writing out computer instructions

D. Restarting the computer

 

Q. 90 If we open a bottle of perfume, its smell spreads in the entire room within a short time due to the process of _____.

A. Evaporation

B. Sublimation

C. Diffusion

D. Decantation

 

Q. 91 The elements of group 18 are ______.

A. Halogens

B. Noble gases

C. Metals

D. Alkaline earth metals

 

Q. 92 Match the following:

Pollutant Effect

A. Smog 1. Reduces oxygen carrying capacity of blood

B. Carbon monoxide 2. Permanent lung damage

C. Sulphur dioxide 3. Asthma, Cough

A. C-1, A-3, B-2

B. A-3, B-1, C-2

C. B-2, A-3, C-1

D. C-2, A-1, B-3

 

Q. 93 On whose 125th birth anniversary did the “Gram Uday se Bharat Uday Abhiyan” initiate? 

A. Dr. A. P. J. Abdul Kalam

B. Dr. Bhimrao Ambedkar

C. Mahatma Gandhi

D. Pt. Jawahrlal Nehru

 

Q. 94 What was discovered by Ernest Orlando Lawrence?

A. Electric Motor

B. Electricity

C. Electric Fan

D. Cyclotron

 

Q. 95 Who is known as “The Wizard of Hockey”?

A. Maurice Richard

B. Bobby Hull

C. Manzoor Hussain

D. Major Dhyanchand

 

Q. 96 What are the paintings done on walls and rock surfaces like roofs and sides called?

A. Chikan

B. Mural

C. Patola

D. Jataka

 

Q. 97 Which company has won the prestigious “Golden Globe Tiger Award” for excellence and leadership for the year 2017?

A. Coal India Limited

B. Gujarat Narmada Valley Fertilisers and Chemicals Limited

C. Delhi Metro Rail Corporation

D. National Fertilisers limited

 

Q. 98 Who is the author of the book named “The Race of My Life”?

A. Chris Gayle

B. Milkha Singh

C. Anil Kumble

D. Kapil Dev

 

Q. 99 Which o the following lays out the rules and regulations for diplomatic relations between countries?

A. Bangkok Convention

B. Veinna Convention

C. Kyoto Convention

D. Singapore Convention

 

Q. 100 About what percentage of water of Indus river system is received by Pakistan under Indus Water Treaty?

A. 60

B. 70

C. 80

D. 90

Answer Sheet 
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Answer C B B D A D C C C A
Question 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Answer A D B C C A D D A A
Question 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Answer A A C C B C A B D C
Question 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Answer D C A A A D A A A C
Question 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Answer A B A B D C D C B C
Question 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Answer B C A C D B C C C B
Question 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Answer A A B C B D B C A D
Question 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Answer A B C D A A A D D A
Question 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Answer A B B B D D B B C C
Question 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Answer B B B D D B B B B C

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