CTET July 2013 Paper-II Previous Year Paper

CTET July 2013 Paper-II

Q. 1 Which one of the following is a critique of theory of multiple intelligences ?

A. Multiple intelligence are only the ‘talents’ present in intelligence as a whole.

B. Multiple intelligence provides students to discover their propensities.

C. It over emphasises practical intelligence.

D. It cannot be supported by empirical evidence at all.

 

Q. 2 Which one of the following pair is least likely to be a correct match ?

A. Children enter in – Chomsky the world with certain knowledge about language

B. Language and ·-. Vygotsky thought are initially two different activities

C. Language IS· — Piaget contingent on thought

D. Language IS a – B.F. Skinner stimuli in environment

 

Q. 3 Features assigned due to social roles and not due to biological endowment are called

A. Gender role attitudes

B. Gender role strain

C. Gender-role stereotype

D. Gender role diagnosticity

 

Q. 4 Which of the following will be most appropriate to maximise learning ?

A. Teacher should identify her cognitive style as well as of her students’ cognitive style.

B. Individual difference in students should be smoothened by pairing similar students.

C. Teacher should focus on only one learning style to bring optimum result.

D. Students of similar cultural background should be kept in the same class to avoid difference in opinion.

 

Q. 5 All of the following promote assessment as learning except

A. telling students to take internal feedback.

B. generating a safe environment for students to take chances.

C. tell students to reflect on the topic taught.

D. testing students as frequently as possible.

 

Q. 6 When a cook tastes a, food during cooking it may be akin to

A. Assessment of learning

B. Assessment for learning

C. Assessment as learning

D. Assessment and learning

 

Q. 7 Differentiated instruction is

A. using a variety of groupings to meet student needs.

B. doing something different for every student in the class.

C. disorderly or undisciplined student activity.

D. using groups that never change

 

Q. 8 In a culturally and linguistically diverse classroom, before deciding whether a student comes under special education category, a teacher should

A. Not involve parents as parents have their own work

B. ‘Evaluate student on her/his mother language to establish disability

C. Use specialised psychologists

D. Segregate the child to neutralise environmental factor

 

Q. 9 Learning disabilities may occur due to all of the following except ·.

A. Teachers way of teaching

B. Prenatal use of alcohol

C. Mental Retardation

D. Meningitis during infancy

 

Q. 10 An inclusive school reflects on all the following questions except :

A. Do we believe that all students can learn

B. Do,we work in teams to plan and deliver learning enabling environment

C. Do we properly segregate special children from normal to provide better care

D. Do we adopt strategies catering for the diverse needs of students

 

Q. 11 Gifted students are

A. Convergent thinkers

B. Divergent thinkers .

C. Extrovert

D. Very hard working

 

Q. 12 The shaded area represent students in a normal distribution who fall

A. At σ=0

B. Between 2σ-3σ

C. After 3σ

D. Between σ-2σ

 

Q. 13 Which one of the following pair would be most appropriate choice to complete the following sentence ? Children faster when they are involved in the activities that seem to be________

A. Forget; useful in a classroom

B. Recall; linked with their classwork only

C. Memorise; culturally neutral

D. Learn; useful in real life

 

Q. 14 CBSE prescribed group activities for students in place of activities for individual students.

The idea behind doing so could be

A. to overcome the negative emotional response to individual competition which may generalise across learning.

B. to make · it easy for teachers to observe groups instead of individual students.

C. to rationalise the: time available with schools most of which do not have enough time for individual activities.

D. to reduce the infrastructural cost of the activity.

 

Q. 15 The conclusion ‘Children can learn violent behaviour depicted in movies’ may be derived on the basis of the work done by which of the following psychologist ?

A. Edward L. Thorndike

B. J.B. Watson

C. Albert Bandura

D. Jean Piaget

 

Q. 16 Students observe fashion shows and try to imitate models. This kind of imitation may be called

A. Primary simulation

B. Secondary simulation

C. Social learning

D. Generalisation

 

Q. 17 If students repeatedly make errors during a lesson, a teacher should

A. make changes in instruction, tasks, timetable or seating arrangements.

B. leave the lesson for the time being and come: back to it after some time.

C. identify the erring students and talk to principal about them.

D. make erring students stand outside the classroom.

 

Q. 18 Following are some techniques to manage anxiety due to an approaching Examination; except

A. familiarising with the pattern of question paper.

B. thinking too much ·about the result.

C. seeking support.

D. emphasising strengths.

 

Q. 19 Bloom’s taxonomy is a hierarchical organisation of ____

A. achievement goals

B. curricular declarations

C. reading skills

D. cognitive objectives

 

Q. 20 A, B and’ C are three students studying ·English. ‘A’ finds it . interesting -and thinks it will be helpful for her in future. ‘B’ studies English as she wants to secure first rank in the class. ‘C’ studies it as she is primarily concerned to secure passing grades. The goals of A, B and C respectively are

A. Mastery, Performance, Performance A voidance

B. Performance, Performance A voidance, Mastery

C. Performance Avoidance, Mastery, Performance

D. Mastery, Performance Avoidance, Performance

 

Q. 21 Even though this was clearly in violation of his safety needs, Captain Vikram Batra died fighting in the Kargil War while ·protecting his country. He might have

A. sought novel experience.

B. achieved self-actualisation.

C. ignored his belongingness needs.

D. wanted to earn a good name to his family.

 

Q. 22 Extinction of a response is more difficult following ·

A. partial reinforcement

B. continuous reinforcement

C. punishment

D. verbal reproach

 

Q. 23 Mastery orientation can be encouraged by

A. focusing on students individual effort.

B. comparing students successes with each other.

C. assigning lot of practice material as home assignments.

D. taking unexpected tests.

 

Q. 24 Which one of the following is correctly matched?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 25 All the following facts indicate that a child is emotionally and socially fit in a class except

A. develop good relationships with peers

B. concentrate on and persist with challenging tasks

C. manage both anger and joy effectively

D. concentrate persistently on competition with peers

 

Q. 26 Which of the following statements support role of environment in the development of a child ?

A. Some students quickly process information while others in the same class do not.

B. There has been a steady increase in students’ average performance on IQ tests in last few decades.

C. Correlation · between IQs of identical twins raised in different . homes is as high as.0.75.

D. Physically fit children are often found to be morally good.

 

Q. 27 Socialisation includes cultural transmission and

A. discourages rebellion.

B. development of individual, personality.

C. fits children into labels.

D. provides emotional support.

 

Q. 28 A teacher shows two identical glasses filled with an equal amount of juice in them. She empties them in two different glasses one of which is taller and the other one is wider. She asks her class to identify which glass would have more juice in it. Students reply that the taller glass has more juice. Her students have difficulty in· dealing wit 

A. Accommodation

B. Egocentrism

C. Decentring

D. Reversibility

 

Q. 29 Karnail Singh does not pay income tax despite legal procedures and expenses. He thinks that he cannot support a corrupt government which spends millions .of rupees in building unnecessary dams. He is probably in which state of Kohlberg’s stages of . moral development

A. Conventional

B. Post Conventional

C. Pre Conventional

D. Para Conventional

 

Q. 30 Intelligence theory incorporates the mental processes involved in intelligence (i.e. metacomponents) and the varied forms that intelligence can take (i.e. creative intelligence)

A. Spearman’s ‘g’ factor

B. Sternberg’s triarchic theory of intelligence

C. Savant theory of intelligence

D. Thurstone’s primary mental abilities

 

Q. 31 The number of integers less than -3 but greater than -8 is

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 6

 

Q. 32 The distance between two places is 12 km. A map scale is 1: 25000. The distance between the two places on the map is

A. 24

B. 36

C. 48

D. 60

 

Q. 33 The reciprocal of -(3/8) x -(7/13) is

A. 104/21

B. -104/21

C. 21/104

D. -21/104

 

Q. 34 The number of vertices in a polyhedron which has 30 edges and 12 faces is

A. 12

B. 15

C. 20

D. 24

 

Q. 35 When half of a number is increased by 15, the result is 39. The sum of digits of the original number is

A. 6

B. 7

C. 9

D. 12

 

Q. 36 In ΔPQT, PQ =PT. The points R and S are on QT such that PR = PS. If ∠PTS = 62° and ∠RPS = 34°, then measure of ∠QPR is

A. 11°

B. 13°

C. 15°

D. 17°

 

Q. 37 If for ΔABC and ΔDEF, the correspondence CAB <—> EDF gives a congruence, then which of the followIng is not true ~·

A. AC=DE

B. AB=EF

C. ∠A=∠D

D. ∠B=∠F

 

Q. 38  40% of (100 – 20% of 300) is equal to

A. 16

B. 20

C. 64

D. 140

 

Q. 39 HCF of two numbers is 28 and their LCM is 336. If om~ number is 112, then the other number is

A. 56

B. 70

C. 84

D. 98

 

Q. 40 If 2x/3 = 0.6 and 0.02 y = 1, then the value of x +y-1 is

A. 0.92

B. 1.1

C. 49.1

D. 50.9

 

Q. 41 If Y = (x+2)/(x + 1), y is not equal to 1 and then value of x is

A. (y+2)/(1-y)

B. (y+2)/(y-1)

C. (y-2)/(y+1)

D. (2-y)/(1-y)

 

Q. 42 A square and a circle have equal perimeters. Tine ratio of the area of the square to the area of the circle is

A. 1:1

B. 1:4

C. π:2

D. π:4

 

Q. 43 ABCD is a square with AB = (x + 16) em and BC = (3x) em. The perimeter (in em) of the square is

A. 16

B. 24

C. 32

D. 96

 

Q. 44 The mean of 10 numbers is 0. If 72 and -12 are included in these numbers, the new mean will be

A. 0

B. 6

C. 5

D. 60

 

Q. 45 The circumference of the base of a right circular cylinder is 44 em and its height is 15 cm. The volume (in cubic centimeter) of·the cylinder is

A. 770

B. 1155

C. 1540

D. 2310

 

Q. 46 A class VII teacher wants to discuss the following problem in the class :

“A square is divided into four congruent rectangles. The perimeter of each rectangle is 40 units. What is the perimeter of given square ?”

Key Mathematical concepts required to solve this problem is

A. Area of square· and rectangle, perimeter of square and rectangle and definition of square and rectangle

B. Meaning of the terms square, rectangle, congruent, perimeter, etc.

C. Area of rectangle, perimeter of square

D. Formation of algebraic equation to solve the problem.

 

Q. 47 Algebra is introduced in the middle classes. According to Piaget’s’ theory of cognitive development, it is appropriate to introduce algebra at this stage as

A. the child is at sensor motor stage and can understand with the help of lots of manipulates.

B. the child is: at pre-operational stage and can understand abstract concepts.

C. the child is at concrete-operational stage and he can understand and conceptualize concrete experiences by creating ·logical structure.

D. the child is at formal operational stage and is fully mature to grasp the abstract concepts.

 

Q. 48 Mr. Sharma was assessing the students’ work on exponents. One of the response sheet was as follows :

a)2³ x 2⁵ = 2⁸

b)3² x 4² = 12⁴

c)3³ + 3⁵ = 1/3²

d)9³ + 18⁶ = (1/2)³

On the basis of this response sheet Mr. Sharma can make the following observations :

 

A. Child has understood the laws of exponents and can apply them well.

B. Child has understood the laws of exponents but has made clerical errors.

C. Child has understood the laws of exponents but has not practised the questions involving division of two numbers

D. Child has understood the law of exponents for the cases where the base is same and has missed the · concept for the case where the base is different.

 

Q. 49 According to Van Hiele level of Geometric thought the five levels of geometric understanding are visualization, analysis, informal deduction, formal deduction and rigour.

Students of class Vll are asked to classify the quadrilaterals according to their properties.

These students are at __ level of Van Hiele Geometric thought.

A. Visualization

B. Analysis

C. Informal Deduction

D. Formal Deduction·

 

Q. 50 A task assigned to the class Vlll student is as follows : An open box is to be made out of a metallic sheet of 50· em x 65 em. Length and breadth of the box is 30 .em and 15 em respectively. What is the possible height of the· box ? Also find the volume of this box. This task refer to

A. lower level cognitive demand as it requires the knowledge of formulae of volume of cuboid.

B. lower level of cognitive demand as there is no connection between concepts involved and procedure required.

C. higher level of cognitive demand is the problem can be solved by making diagrams and connections between many possible solutions

D. higher level of cognitive demand as it requires the use of conceptual understanding that underline the procedure to complete the task.

 

Q. 51 Mr. Nadeem gave the following task to his class, after completing the topic on lines and angles :

Speak for 2 minutes on the following figures using your knowledge about lines and and angles.This task is

A. Reflective in nature, can be used to pass time.

B. Exploratory in nature, can be used for summative assessments.

C. reflective as well can be used for formative assessment

D. communicating and can encourage mathematical talk in the classroom during free time

 

Q. 52 A child of class Vll defined the rectangle as follows : “Rectangle is a quadrilateral whose opposite sides are parallel and equal.” The definition reflects that the child

A. cannot recognize the shape.

B. do not know the correct properties of the shape.

C. knows the properties of the shape, but repeated some properties in definition.

D. knows some; properties, but missed some important to complete the definition.

 

Q. 53 A very common error observed in addition of linear expression is 5y+3=8y. This type of error is termed as

A. Clerical error

B. Conceptual error

C. Procedural error

D. Careless error

 

Q. 54 Read the following question from the class VI text-book : “Prabal deposited t 5,000 in a_ bank at the rate of 5% interest per annum. After 2 years he withdrew the money to purchase the study table for rs. 3,500. He deposited! the money left ·with him again at the rate of 5% interest per annum for another two years. How much amount will he receive after two years ?” What values can be inculcated in students through this question ?

A. Honesty

B. Habit of saving money and spending it wisely

C. Sincerity

D. Simplicity and helping others

 

Q. 55 Following is a problem from text-book of class VI: “Express the following statement through linear expression : Neha has 7 more toffees than Megha. If Megha has x toffees, how many toffees does Neha have ?” Which competence of Bloom’s cognitive domain is referred -in the above question ?

A. Knowledge

B. Comprehension

C. Analysis

D. Synthesis

 

Q. 56 If p = 3²⁰⁰⁰ + 3⁻²⁰⁰⁰ and q = 3²⁰⁰⁰ + 3⁻²⁰⁰⁰, then the value of p² – q² is

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 57 The square of 9 is divided by the cube root of 125. The remainder is

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 58 The value of √(16√(8)√(4)) is

A. 16

B. 8

C. 8∛2

D. 16√2

 

Q. 59 One-half of 1.2 x 10³⁰ is

A. 6.0 x 10³⁰

B. 6.0 x 10²⁹

C. 0.6 x 5³⁰

D. 1.2 x 10¹⁵

 

Q. 60 If 2/3, 23/30, 9/10, 11/15 and 4/5 are written in ascending order, then the fraction in the middle most

A. 23/30

B. 4/5

C. 2/3

D. 11/15

 

Q. 61 The steps required for the conversion of kitchen garbage into manure are given below in a jumbled form. t:

(A) Put the garbage in the pit.

(B) Cover the bottom of the pit with sand.

(C) Cover the pit loosely with grass or a gunny bag.

(D) Add worms.

The correct sequence of these steps is:

A. (B), (A), (C), (D)

B. (B), (C), (A), (D)

C. (B), (A), (D), (C)

D. (B), (D), (A), (C)

 

Q. 62 Two organisms are best friends and live together. One provides shelter, water and nutrients while the other prepares and provides food. Such an association of organisms is termed as

A. Autotrophy

B. Parasitism

C. Hetrotrophy

D. Symbiosis

 

Q. 63 In the alimentary canal. the swallowed· food moves downwards because of

A. the contraction of muscles in the wall of food pipe.

B. the flow of fluid material taken

C. gravitational pull.

D. force provided by the muscular tongue.

 

Q. 64 Frogs and earthworms breathe through their skin because of which the skin of both the organisms is

A. dry and rough

B. dry and slimy

C. moist and rough

D. moist and slimy

 

Q. 65 While going for a picnic a student noted the reading on the odometer on the bus after every 10 minutes till the end of the journey. Later on he recorded the reading in a table shown below:

The average speed of the bus in the entire journey in metres per second was

A. 15

B. 18

C. 30

D. 54

 

Q. 66 You are provided with a concave mirror, a concave lens, a convex mirror and a convex lens. To obtain an enlarged image of an object you can use either

A. concave lens or .convex lens

B. concave mirror or convex mirror

C. concave mirror or concave lens

D. concave mirror or convex lens

 

Q. 67 Select from the following a set of Kharif Crops :

A. Cotton, paddy, pea, linseed

B. Paddy, maize, cotton, soyabean

C. Gram, mustard, groundnut, wheat

D. Maize, paddy, linseed, soyabean

 

Q. 68 Study the following statements about the effects of weeds on the crop plants:

(A) They help crop plants to grow healthily.

(B) They interfere in harvesting.

(C) They affect plant growth.

(D) They compete with crop plants for water, nutrients, space and light. The correct statements are :

A. (C) and (D) only

B. (D) only

C. (B), (C) and (D)

D. (A), (B) and (D)

 

Q. 69 When we add aluminium foil to freshly prepared sodium hydroxide solution a gas is produced. Which of the following correctly states the property of this gas ?

A. Colourless and odourless gas which extinguishes a burning match stick.

B. Colourless and odourless gas which promotes burning of a candle.

C. Brown coloured pungent smelling gas.

D. Colourless and odourless gas which produces a ‘pop’ sound. when a burning match stick is brought near it.

 

Q. 70 Aqueous solution of which of the following oxides will change the colour of blue litmus to red ?

A. Copper oxide

B. Iron oxide

C. Magnesium oxide

D. Sulphur dioxide

 

Q. 71 Which of the following· is a pair of exhaustible natural resources ?

A. Coal and soil

B. Petroleum and water

C. Minerals and wildlife

D. Natural gas and sun-light

 

Q. 72 Which of the following statements is true about endemic species ?

A. They are not affected by the destruction of their habitat.

B. They are found only in zoos and botanical gardens.

C. They are found exclusively in specific habitat.

D. Endemic species can never become endangered.

 

Q. 73 Which of the following pairs is related to the inheritance of characters ?

A. Chromosomes and genes

B. Chromosomes and mitochondria

C. Cell membrane and cell wall

D. Cell membrane and chloroplast

 

Q. 74 Out of the different combinations of terms given below, the correct combination of terms with reference to an animal cell is

A. Nucleus, plastid, cell membrane, cell wall

B. Nucleus, chromosome, ribosome, cell wall

C. Cell membrane, chromosome, ribosome, mitochondria

D. Cell membrane, ribosome, chloroplast, mitochondria

 

Q. 75 Consider the following sets of reproductive terms

(A) Sperm, oviduct, egg, uterus

(B) Ovulation, egg, oviduct, uterus

(C) Sperm, testis, sperm duct, penis

(D) Menstruation, egg,. oviduct, uterus·

The sets of correct combination are :

 

A. (A), (B) and (C)

B. (B), (C) and (D)

C. (C), (D) and (A)

D. (A), (B) and (D)

 

Q. 76 Which of the following elements must be available in water for the metamorphosis of tadpoles ?

A. Chlorine

B. Bromine

C. Sulphur

D. Iodine

 

Q. 77 Which one of the following is not the objective of teaching of Science at upper primary stage ?

A. Developing questJ.onmg and enquiring skills

B. Acquiring technological skills

C. Acquiring process skills

D. Acquiring scientific literacy

 

Q. 78 National Curriculum Framework (NCF) strongly recommends that Science education at upper primary stage should

A. prepare students for competitive examinations.

B. help students to be emotionally balanced.

C. help students to acquire computational skills.

D. follow constructivist approach for teaching and learning of the subject.

 

Q. 79 ‘Cognitive validity’ of Science curriculum at upper primary stage requires that it should 

A. be age appropriate and within the reach of students’ understanding level.

B. convey scientifically correct content.

C. nurture the natural curiosity and creativity of the learners.

D. enable the students to appreciate how · the concepts of Science evolve with time.

 

Q. 80 Which one of the following does not reflect the personality attribute of a person having scientific temper ?

A. Seeking evidence·

B. Biased opinion

C. Rational thinking

D. Open mindedness

 

Q. 81 NCERT Science textbooks for upper primary classes include large number of daily life related questions which have been left unanswered. This has been done so that

A. teachers have: a good pool of questions for assessment purpose.

B. students can send these questions to scientists to get the answer.

C. teachers can use these questions for home assignment.

D. students can seek answer to these questions by exploring different resource

 

Q. 82 While teaching the correct method of reading a clinical thermometer to class VIII students, Neha mentions the following necessary precautions to be taken:

Which one of the above precautions has been mentioned wrongly by the teacher?

A. Thermometer should be washed with hot water. before and after use.

B. Do not hold the thermometer by the bulb while taking the reading.

C. Ensure that before use, the mercury level in the thermometer is below 35 °C.

D. Read the thermometer keeping the level of mercury along the line of sight.

 

Q. 83 The section on ‘activities and projects’ included in the exercises· of NCERT Science textbooks for class Vlll primarily aims at

A. enhancing in depth understanding of the basic concepts.

B. keeping the students engaged during vacations.

C. assessing the students on practical skills.

D. providing opportunity to students for extended learning.

 

Q. 84 Major. objective of organisation of . Science Exhibitions is to

A. grade students on practical skills.

B. provide opportunity to students to compete with others.

C. provide opportunity to students to showcase their creative ideas.

D. provide opportunity to students to enhance their academic performance.

 

Q. 85 Four candidates appearing in an interview for the post of science teacher were asked to give a demonstration lesson to class VIII students on the topic ‘Pressure exerted by liquids and gases’. Following different approaches were followed by different candidates :

Which one of the above approaches will be most effective for teaching of the topic?

A. Detailed explanation of related concepts with the help of diagram on the blackboard.

B. Use of charts for _explanation of different concepts.

C. Organisation of hands-on student activities followed up with discussions.

D. Greater focus on . classroom questions during the lecture.

 

Q. 86 The technique of ‘classroom questioning’ in teaching of Science can be more effectively used for

A. ensuring levels of learning

B. developing problem solving skills

C. maintaining discipline in the Class

D. promoting creativity and innovativeness

 

Q. 87 Given below are the steps to test the presence of proteins in a food item.

These steps are not in correct sequence.

(A) Take a small quantity of food item in a test tube, add 10 drops of water to it and shake it.

(B) Make the paste or powder of the food to be tested.

(C) Add 10 drops of caustic soda solution to the test tube and shake well.

(D) Add 2 drops of copper sulphate

to it. The correct sequence of these steps is

 

A. (A), (B), (D), (C)

B. (B), (A), (D), (C)

C. (B), (A), (C), (D)

D. (D), (B), (A}, (C)

 

Q. 88 Which of the following terms constitute the female part of a flower ?

A. Stigma, ovary and stamen

B. Stigma, ovary and style

C. Stamen, ovary and style

D. Stamen, petals and sepals

 

Q. 89 How many muscles work together to move a bone?

A. two

B. four

C. six

D. number is not fixed

 

Q. 90 Choose the set that represents only the biotic component of a habitat.

A. Sand, turtle, crab, rocks

B. Insects, frog, fish, aquatic plants

C. Tiger, deer, grass, soil

D. Insects, water, aquatic plants, fish

 

Questions: 91 – 99

Renowned educationist Sir Tim Brighouse, observed that an outstanding school has four factors that are visible. “Teachers talk about teaching, teachers observe each other’s practice, teachers plan, organize and evaluate their work together rather than separately, and that teachers teach each other.” He continues : “One of the reasons I like that is that you can immediately see ways in which you could make it more likely that teachers talk about teaching.” Sir Tim then encouraged schools to focus on activities .that were low effort but high impact, describing them as “butterflies”. Some . examples he gave included rotating staff meetings around different classrooms with the host, at the start, describing the room layout and displays, or discussing other teaching techniques ·and approaches. With modem technology teachers could observe their own. lessons and then. when viewing them back, decide whether they want to share them with a mentor. The role of mentoring was vital and suggested that more schools could send teachers out in small groups to learn from colleagues in other schools. He said : “If this were widespread practice, if people were to attend to their butterflies, the outcome in terms of teacher morale and teacher satisfaction would be positive. We all agree that professional development is the vital ingredient”. 

 

Q. 91 In the mode suggested by Sir Tim, teachers may self-evaluate and self reflect

A. using technology

B. without technology

C. through a students’ surve

D. interviewing each other

 

Q. 92 ‘Teachers talk about teaching’ means that they

A. make some suggestions

B. discuss their own practices

C. criticize one another

D. freely change opinions

 

Q. 93 ‘Low effort but high impact’ in this context implies that schools

A. pay teachers a lower salary

B. extract more work for the same pay

C. decrease the workload and salary

D. create opportunities within the system for development

 

Q. 94 In this extract, it is observed that technology supports teachers to

A. improve students

B. conduct meetings for teachers

C. follow-up/remediation activities for students.

D. self-diagnose their practices

 

Q. 95 Here, ‘visible’ means

A. seen

B. obvious

C. appealing

D. bright

 

Q. 96 ‘Rotating staff. meetings in the classrooms’ permits teachers to

A. be informal with each other

B. miss some of them

C. share their own practices with others

D. keep busy all the time

 

Q. 97 A synonym for the word, ‘counselling’, from.the passage is

A. describing

B. discussing

C. mentoring

D. teaching

 

Q. 98 The talk by Sir Tim is about the

A. teachers who dress like butterflies.

B. visiting schools to socialise.

C. knowledge teachers gain for job growth.

D. schools who control their teachers.

 

Q. 99 “Butterflies” here refer to

A. the dress code

B. a practice of staff interaction

C. changing schools

D. going to classes in rotation

 

Questions: 100 – 105

Do you know how much you mean to me·?

As you grow into what you will be.

You came from within, from just beneath my heart

It’s there you’ll always be though your own life will now start.

You’re growing so fast it sends me a whirl,

With misty eyes I ask, Where’s my little girl?

I know sometimes to you I seem harsh and so unfair,

But one day you will see, I taught you well because I care.

The next few years will so quickly fly,

With laughter and joy, mixed with a few tears to cry.

As you begin your growth to womanhood, this fact you must know,

You’ll always be my source of pride, no matter where you go.

You must stand up tall and proud, within you feel no fear, .

For all you dreams and goals, sit before you very near.

With God’s love in your heart and the world by its tail,

You’ll always be my winner, and victory will prevail.

For you this poem was written, with help from above,

To tell you in a rhythm of your Mother’s heartfelt love !

 

Q. 100 ‘Do you know how much you mean to me ?’ is a question.

A. rhetorical

B. restrictive

C. convergent

D. divergent

 

Q. 101 An antonym for the word ‘harsh’ is

A. severe

B. mild

C. grim

D. clashing

 

Q. 102 In the expression ‘It sends me a whirl’, ‘it’ refers to

A. travelling far

B. growing up

C. new experiences

D. the real world

 

Q. 103 To ‘stand up tall’ is

A. growing up healthy .

B. be tail like the boys

C. being fearless

D. getting ambitious

 

Q. 104 The phrase ‘the world by its tail’ means to

A. be a good follower

B. overcome challenges

C. face one’s enemies

D. to avoid challenges

 

Q. 105 The poem addresses a

A. friend

B. daughter

C. mother

D. girl

 

Q. 106 A person sitting behind you in a cinema starts talking on the mobile phone and you want to tell him/her to stop. Choose how you will make the request.

A. “Stop talking so loudly !”

B. “Please don’t use the mobile phone inside the theatre.”

C. “can’t you not use the mobile phone; please ?”

D. “Could you possibly stop using the mobile phone here ?”

 

Q. 107 Example for homonym would be

A. aisle/isle

B. beer/bear

C. stale/stall

D. stock/stoke

 

Q. 108 Which is a lexical word?

A. love

B. is

C. the

D. might

 

Q. 109 While learning about the passive voice form, students learn about

A. use of by

B. position of verb

C. position of nouns

D. use of verb forms

Q. 110 Students can leave the school premises at 12.30 pm. Students ought to leave the school premises at 12.30 pm. The two given statements can be differentiated by drawing students’·attention to the

A. differences in the arrangement of words

B. meaning conveyed by the models/verb modifiers

C. the roles of the subject and object in both sentences

D. absence of change in the verb form ·

 

Q. 111 Which learning domain constitutes higher order thinking ?

A. remembering

B. understanding

C. application

D. evaluation

 

Q. 112 The process of word formation consists of

A. compounding and affixes

B. opposites and meaning

C. verbs and noun

D. using synonyms or euphemisms

 

Q. 113 When reading, to ‘decode’ means to

A. an action used in ICT

B. solving a complex puzzle

C. to analyse and understand

D. understanding a foreign language

 

Q. 114 Speaker 1 :’We had an enjoyable holiday this winter.

Speaker 2 Where did you go ?

Speaker 1 Where ?

Speaker 2 Yes, which place did you visit?

During the assessment of students’ speaking-listening skits; mark/s would be deducted during this exchange for

 

A. Speaker I

B. Speaker II

C. Both

D. Neither

 

Q. 115 While writing, ‘ellipses’ is a

A. phrasal verbs

B. semantic linker

C. adjectival form

D. prepositional phrase

 

Q. 116 If a longer piece of writing is brief, complete, in the third person, without digressions and emotional overtones and logically arranged, it is a

A. classified advertisement

B. memorandum

C. report

D. newspaper article

 

Q. 117 he politician had been making promises long before election time. The statement is in the tense.

A. past continuous

B. present perfect

C. present perfect continuous

D. past perfect continuous

 

Q. 118 ‘Gender sensitization’ in the school curriculum implies

A. children should be differentiated as boys and girls

B. sex education from primary school onwards

C. respectful approach towards defining gender roles

D. promote co-education in high school.

 

Q. 119 Identify where the collective form is an error:

A. host of angels

B. congress of baboon

C. clutch of ducks

D. shoal of fish

 

Q. 120 An example of a question to ‘funnel’ or restrict a respondent’s answer is

A. “What do you think of the weather?”

B. “How many books are there ?”

C. “Tell me about your most recent holiday.”

D. “What are your goals ?”

 

Questions: 121 – 129

Raja Ravi Varma was the Indian King and painter whose paintings . brought a momentous turn in Indian art. His works on great Indian epics Ramayana and Mahabharata brought the omnipresent deities to the surroundings of earthy world. This showed , excellent fusion of Indian traditional art with European realism. These paintings influenced future generation artists and also influenced the literature and films. His representation of mythological characters has become a part of the Indian imagination of the Classics. His style is criticized for being too gaudy and sentimental. Ravi Varma was born on April.29th, 1848 in Kilimanoor Palace in Kerala. Ravi Verma was brought up in an environment of “art and culture. At the age of seven he started painting the figures of animals, acts and scenes from daily life on the wall with charcoal. As he grew up, he was exposed to the famous paintings of Italian painters. Here he was using indigenous paints made from leaves, flowers. He enhanced his creativity by listening to the music of veterans, watching Kathakali, a folk dance form, going through the manuscripts preserve in ancient families and listening to the artistic interpretation of the epics. Raja Ravi Verma is most remembered for his paintings of beautifully sari-clad worried, who were depicted as graceful and shapely. 

 

Q. 121 The themes of Ravi Varma’s famous paintings were

A. deities

B. animals and habitats

C. natural scenery

D. female figures

 

Q. 122 He was especially able to access historical documents in the possession of

A. national museums that curate them

B. certain individuals

C. families who inherited them

D. his family members in Kilimanoor

 

Q. 123 As he matured in his craft, Ravi Verma’s·skills were influenced by

A. Italian artists

B. Indian cinema

C. Ancient manuscripts

D. None of these

 

Q. 124 ‘His style is criticized for being too gaudy and sentimental’ means that his work was characterized by

A. pale colours and sad atmosphere

B. unrealistic images

C. lacking intellectual and emotional depth·

D. strong colours and emotionally appealing

 

Q. 125 In the extract, ‘artistic interpretation of the epics’ means he was interested in

A. popular writing of his time.

B. unique rendering of old mythologies.

C. standard interpretation of the Indian epics.

D. unusual and rare myths found in legends.

 

Q. 126 Find a word in the passage which is the opposite of ‘minimized’

A. influenced

B. criticized

C. exposed

D. enhanced

 

Q. 127 The article is alan

A. fiction

B. essay

C. biography

D. autobiography

 

Q. 128 The focus is on the subject’s association with

A. sculpture

B. painting

C. music

D. dance (Kathakali)

 

Q. 129 A synonym for ‘omnipresent’ is

A. conspicuous

B. universal

C. partly invisible

D. magnificent

 

Questions: 130 – 135

The scene presented by a community of bees is the more astonishing, the more we become acquainted with its details. Each hive is a commonwealth, of which the queen is nominally the head, receiving the greatest honour and care from her industrious subjects. With a greater wisdom than can be claimed by men, these creatures allow no disputes about the succession to the throne to induce them to injure each other; but they require the parties themselves individually to settle the quarrel between each other, without prolonged interference with the duties of the hive. Indeed, they may be said with truth to have adopted the advice : “Let those who make the quarrels, be the only ones to fight.” Only one queen is permitted to hold office in the community at a time; but while her claims are undisputed, she is treated with singular respect and affection. Indeed, her presence, and the prospect of a future generation, appear the chief motives of the insects to exert themselves. )

 

Q. 130 The writer’s observation that the bees ‘settle the quarrel between each other, without prolonged interference with the duties of the hive’ suggests that he/she is

A. pointing a bee character

B. observing the traits of worker bees

C. appreciating the queen bee

D. condemning the behaviour of ill tempered human beings

 

Q. 131 ‘The prospect of a future generation,suggests that the writer is in his/her outlook.

A. ambivalent

B. nationalistic

C. sympathetic

D. appreciative

 

Q. 132 ‘The parties’ in this context means

A. participants

B. political organisation

C. individuals

D. bees

 

Q. 133 The queen bee has a position which gives her from her subordinates.

A. disregard but affection

B. aggressive defensiveness

C. exceptional reverence and devotion

D. caring support and indulgence

 

Q. 134 ‘To exert themselves’ means the bees are

A. having influence

B. quite aggressive

C. busy toiling

D. very exhausted

 

Q. 135 ‘Each hive is a commonwealth ‘ means the hive is

A. over-crowded

B. has a queen

C. self-governing

D. without a leader

 

Q. 136 Compounding is

A. stringing together older words like the formation of earthquake from earth and quake.

B. removing seeming affixes from existing words, such as forming edit from editor.

C. joining parts of two or more older words, such as forming smog, which comes from smoke and fog.

D. forming new words from existing ones by adding suffixes to them, like shame + less + ness -+ shamelessness

 

Q. 137 Constructivism is a theory where students

A. study a variety of dissimilar samples and draw a well founded conclusion.

B. form their own understanding and knowledge of the world, through experiencing things and reflecting on those experiences.

C. are facilitated by the teacher and use a variety of media to research and create their own theories.

D. construct their own learning aids, thereby · gaining hands-on experience.

 

Q. 138 E-learning refers to

A. acquisition of the mother tongue

B. learning English language as the first language.

C. use of electronic media and information and communication technologies

D. a language course for foreign languages

 

Q. 139 Examples of irregular verbs are

A. break – broke

B. train – trainee

C. walk – walked

D. happy – happier

 

Q. 140 A subject-centered approach is where learning experiences are organized around 

A. students’ interests

B. teacher’s subject competence

C. course content

D. educational technology

 

Q. 141 Standardized assessment means ___ assessment.

A. formative

B. summative

C. frequent

D. alternative

 

Q. 142 In the word ‘flower’, the phonetic transcription is

A. /fleur/

B. /fl::eur/

C. /flauer/

D. /flour/

 

Q. 143 The Gathering skill while reading is

A. note-taking

B. note-making

C. puzzling out

D. analysis

 

Q. 144 Multiple choice items consist of a

A. set of questions

B. options to choose questions

C. sequence of grammatical errors

D. stem and a set of options

 

Q. 145 Abilities for adaptive and positive behaviour that enable students to dell effectively with everyday· demands and challenges are

A. multiple intelligences

B. learning domains

C. life skills

D. learning methods

 

Q. 146 A self-contained unit of a discourse in writing dealing with a particular point or idea is

A. an essay

B. a poem

C. a paragraph

D. a statement

 

Q. 147 The following is a conditional sentence

A. I have to go to work.

B. lf the sea is stormy, the waves are high.

C. Shut the door.

D. It’s a sunny day, isn’t it?

 

Q. 148 Communication technology that enable sharing of educational resources within an institution

A. internet

B. intranet

C. telephone

D. audio-video cassette

 

Q. 149 Encouraging the student to love the world and to imagine a peaceful future; and caring for the student and encouraging the student to care for others is education.

A. distance

B. academic

C. values

D. vocational

 

Q. 150 A communication technique that requires the listener to feed back what they have heard in their own words, to confirm the understanding of both parties, is listening.

A. active

B. appreciative

C. informative

D. passive

 

Answer Sheet 
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Answer A D C A D B A B A C
Question 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Answer B C C A C C A B D A
Question 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Answer B A A C D B B C B B
Question 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Answer C C A C D A B A C A
Question 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Answer A D D B D B C C B D
Question 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Answer C D B B B D A B B A
Question 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Answer C D A D A D B C D D
Question 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Answer C C A C B D B D A B
Question 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Answer D A D C C A B B A B
Question 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Answer A B D D B C B C B D
Question  101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
Answer B B C B B B A A D B
Question  111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Answer D A C A B C D C C C
Question 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
Answer D C A D B D C B B D
Question 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
Answer B A C C C A B C A C
Question 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
Answer B B B D C C B B C A

CTET July 2013 Paper-I Previous Year Paper

CTET July 2013 Paper-I


Q. 1 The following three aspects of intelligence are dealt by Sternberg’s traiarchic theory except

A. componential

B. social

C. experiential

D. contextual

 

Q. 2 Howard Gardner’s theory of multiple intelligences emphasizes

A. general intelligence

B. common abilities required in school

C. the unique abilities of each individual

D. conditioning skills in students

 

Q. 3 The sounds th, ph, ch are

A. Morphemes

B. Graphemes

C. Lexemes

D. Phonemes

 

Q. 4 In order to avoid gender stereotyping in class, a teacher should

A. try to put both boys and girls in non-traditional roles.

B. appreciate students’ good work by saying ‘good girl’ or ‘good boy’

C. discourage girl from taking part in wrestling.

D. encourage boys to take risk and be bold

 

Q. 5 Schools should cater to Individual differences to

A. narrow the gap between individual students.

B. even out abilities and performance of students.

C. understand why students are able or unable to learn.

D. make individual students feel exclusive.

 

Q. 6 What kind of support can a school provide to address the individual differences in students ?

A. Follow a child-centered curriculum and provide multiple learning opportunities to students

B. Apply every possible measure to remove the individual differences in students

C. Refer slow learners to special schools

D. Follow same level of curriculum for all students

 

Q. 7 Continuous and Comprehensive Evaluation emphasizes

A. continuous testing on a comprehensive scale to ensure learning.

B. how learning can be observed, . recorded and improved upon.

C. fine-tuning of tests with the teaching.

D. redundancy of the Board examination.

 

Q. 8 School Based Assessment .

A. Dilutes the accountability of Boards of Education.

B. ·Hinders achieving Universal National Standards.

C. Helps all students learn more through diagnosis

D. Makes stude:nts and teachers nonserious and casual.

 

Q. 9 “Readiness for learning” refers to

A. general ability level of students

B. present cognitive level of students in the learning continuum

C. satisfying nature of the act of learning

D. Thorndike’s Law of Readiness

 

Q. 10 A teacher has some physically challenged children in her class. Which of the following would be appropriate for her to say ?

A. Wheel-chaired bound children may take help of their peers in going to hall.

B. Physically inconvenienced children may do an alternative activity in the: classroom.

C. Mohan why don’t you use your crutches to go to the playground.

D. Polio afflicted children will now present a song.

 

Q. 11 Learning disabilities may occur due to all of the following except.

A. Cerebral dysfunction

B. Emotional disturbance

C. Behavioural disturbance

D. Cultural factors

 

Q. 12 An inClusive school.

A. Is committed to· improve the learning outcomes of all students irrespective of their capabilities

B. Differentiate between students and sets less challenging achievement targets for specially abled children

C. Committed particularly to improve the learning outcomes of specially abled students

D. Decides learning heeds of students according to their disability

 

Q. 13 Gifted students

A. Need support not ordinarily provided by the school

B. Can manage their studies without a teacher

C. Can be good models for other students

D. Cannot be learning disabled

 

Q. 14 Giftedness is due to

A. Genetic makeup

B. Environmental motivation

C. Combination of(l) and (2)

D. Psychosocial factors

 

Q. 15 Which of the following is appropriate for environment conducive to thinking and learning in children ?

A. Passive listening for long periods of time

B. Home assignments given frequently

C. Individual tasks done by the. learners

D. allowing students to take some decisions about what to learn and how to learn

 

Q. 16 Learning Disability in motor skills is called

A. Dyspraxia

B. Dyscalculia

C. Dyslexia

D. Dysphasia

 

Q. 17 Learning Disability

A. is a stable state

B. is a variable state

C. need not impair functioning

D. does not improve with appropriate input

 

Q. 18 The following are the steps in the process of problem solving except

A. Identification of a problem

B. Breaking down the problem into smaller parts

C. Explore possible strategies

D. Anticipate outcomes

 

Q. 19 A teacher should

A. treat errors committed by students as blunders and take serious note of each error

B. measure success as the number of times students avoid making mistakes

C. not correct students while they’re trying to communicate ideas

D. focus more provide a knowledge on lecturing and foundation for

 

Q. 20 Seema is desperate to score A+ grade in an examination. As she enters the examination hall and the examination begins, she becomes extremely nervous. Her feet go cold, her heart starts pounding and she is unable to answer properly. The primary reason for this is that

A. she may not be very confident about her preparation

B. she may be thinking excessively about the . result of this examination

C. invigilator teacher on duty may be her class teacher and she is of very strict nature

D. she may not be able to deal with sudden emotional outburst

 

Q. 21 Which of the following cognitive verbs are used to analyse the information given? 

A. IdentifY

B. Differentiate

C. Classify

D. Describe

 

Q. 22 Rajesh is a voracious reader. Apart from studying his course · books, he often goes to library and reads books on diverse topics. Rajesh does his project even in the lunch break. He does not need prompting by his teachers or parents to study for tests and seems to truly enjoy learning. He can be best described as a(n) __ _

A. fact centred learner

B. teacher motivated learner

C. assessment-centered learner

D. intrinsically motivated learner

 

Q. 23 Children in pre-primary get satisfaction room being allowed to discover. They become distressed, when they are discouraged. They do so due to their motivation to

A. reduce their ignorance

B. affiliate with the class

C. create disorder in the class

D. exercise their power

 

Q. 24 Understanding Human Growth and Development enables a teacher to

A. gain control of learners’ emotions while teaching

B. be clear about teaching diverse learners.

C. tell students how they can improve their lives

D. practice her ·teaching m an unbiased way.

 

Q. 25 Which one of the following is true ?

A. Development and learning are unaffected by socio-cultural contexts.

B. Students learn only in a certain way

C. Play is significant for cognition and social competence

D. Questioning by teacher constrains cognitive development.

 

Q. 26 Which one of the following is true about the role of heredity and environment in the development of a child?

A. The relative contributions of peers and genes are not additive.

B. Heredity and environment do not operate together.

C. Propensity IS related to environment while actual development requires heredity.

D. Both heredity and environment contribute 50% each m the development of a child. 

 

Q. 27 Socialization is

A. Rapport between teacher and taught

B. Process of modernization of society

C. Adaptation of social norms

D. Change in social norms

 

Q. 28 A PT teacher wants her students to improve fielding in the game of cricket. Which one of the following strategies will best help his students achieve that goal ?

A. Tell students how important it is for them to learn to field.

B. Explain the logic behind good fielding and rate of success.

C. Demonstrate fielding while students observe

D. Give students a lot of practice in fielding

 

Q. 29 A teacher wishes to help her students to appreciate multiple views of a situation. She provides her students multiple opportunities to debate on this situation in different groups. According to Vygotsky’s perspective, her students will various· views and develop multiple perspectives of the situation on their own.

A. internalize

B. construct

C. operationalize

D. rationalize

 

Q. 30 Sita has learned to eat rice and dal with her hand. When she is given dal and rice, she mixes rice and dal and starts ·eating. She has eating rice and dal into her schema for doing things. 

A. Accommodated

B. Assimilated

C. Appropriated

D. Initiated

 

Q. 31 Perimeter of a square is 24 em and length of a rectangle is 8 em. If the perimeters of the square and the rectangle are equal, then the area (in square em) of the rectangle is

A. 16

B. 24

C. 32

D. 64

 

Q. 32 The difference of the place value and the face value of the number 3 in 12345 is

A. 0

B. 295

C. 297

D. 305

 

Q. 33 Which one of the following is not correct?

A. 56.7 kilogram= 5670 grams

B. A ·cube has six faces

C. One millimetre= 0.1 em

D. 0.10 is same as 0.1

 

Q. 34 The speed of a boat in a river is 20 kmper hour and the speed of another boat is 23 km per hour. They travel in the same direction from the same place at the same time. The distance between the boats after three and half hours is

A. 10 km

B. 10.5 km

C. 11 km

D. 11.5 km

 

Q. 35 When 90707 is divided by 9, the remainder is

A. 3

B. 5

C. 6

D. 7

 

Q. 36 When a fresh fish is dried it becomes 1/3 of its weight. Sunita buys 1500 kg fresh fish for rs. 25 per kg and sell them, when dried, for rs. 80 per kg. How much does she earn ?

A. Rs.2,500

B. Rs.2,700

C. Rs.3,000

D. Rs.3,700

 

Q. 37 Look at the following pattern :

(9-1)÷8= 1

(98-2)÷8=12

(987 – 3) ÷ 8 = 123

(9876- 4) ÷ 8 = 1234

According to this pattern

(987654- 6) ÷ 8 =

 

A. 12345

B. 123456

C. 123465

D. 123467

 

Q. 38 750 ml juice is. fiUed in one bottle and six such bottles are packed in one carton. The number of cartons needed for 450 litres of juice is

A. 75

B. 80

C. 90

D. 100

 

Q. 39 Internal length, breadth and depth of a (rectangular) box are 4 em, 3 em and 2 em respectively. How many_such boxes are needed to pack 8664 centimetre cubes ?

A. 351

B. 361

C. 391

D. 722

 

Q. 40 “Write the equivalent fraction of 3 .” The above question asked to students of Class IV refers to

A. lower-level demand task as it requires procedural skills only.

B. lower-level demand task as it is based on memorization only.

C. higher-level demand task as it is based on procedure with connection.

D. higher-level demand task as it is based on procedure without connection

 

Q. 41 Students often make a mistake in comparing the decimal numbers. For example 0.50 is larger than 0.5. The most probable reason for this error is

A. lack of practice of these tyrpes of questions in the class.

B. lack of concrete experience of representation of decimal number on number line.

C. careless attempt by the students.

D. misconception regarding the significance · of zero in ordering decimal.

 

Q. 42 A teacher prompts the students to prepare Mathematical journal with the theme

“Application of Mathematics in Daily life”. This activity is 

A. to test tlhe students understanding of Mathematical concepts.

B. to provide opportunity to students share their ideas and knowledge.

C. to help students to sense of Mathematics.

D. to help students to connect Mathematical concepts and its applications and to share their knowledge and ideas.

 

Q. 43 According to Van Hiele level of geometric thought, the five )evels are – visualization, analysis, informal deduction, formal deduction arid rigour. Some polygons are given to a child of Class III for sorting.

He classified tbe polygons on the basis of the number of sides. This child is at ________ level of Van-Hiele Geometrical tbought

A. Visualization

B. ,’Analysis

C. lnformal deduction

D. Formal deduction

 

Q. 44 A child displays difficulty in differentiating between numbers, operations and symbols, two clock hands, different coins etc. This implies that the specific barrier affecting his. Learning is

A. poor verbal, visual, auditory and working memory.

B. poor visual processing ability i.e. visual discrimination, spatial organization and visual coordination

C. poor language processing ability. i.e. expression, vocabulary and auditory processing.

D. ·poor motor skills, reading and writing skills.

 

Q. 45 NCF 2005 emphasises on Constructivist Approach of learning as it focuses on

A. memorization of definitions and formulae

B. submission of regular homework.

C. active participation of Ieamer through engaging activities

D. effective lecture and instructions by teacher.

 

Q. 46 Following are array diagram bindis to represent 15.

The way of representing 15 or any . other number in the above manner can be used to

teach concept of

A. area and commutative,property

B. commutative property of multiplication, identification of prime and composite numbers, area of rectangle

C. representation of a number as product of two numbers, commutative property of multiplication, multiplicative identity, identification of prime · and composite numbers, area of rectangle using units quantity

D. representation of a number as product of two numbers, commutative property of multiplic:ation, multiplication identity, identification of prime and composite numbers.

 

Q. 47 Which of the following questions is open-ended ?

A. Write the numbers 25, 7I, I9, 9, 8, I7, 85 in ascending order.

B. Which is more ? 1/3 or 7/5

C. Write any four number greater than 2.7

D. What is 7 more than 2/7 ?

 

Q. 48 The most appropriate tool to expose the students of class II to plane figures, its vertices and edges is

A. Geo-Board

B. Nets of 3D solids

C. Cubes

D. Black-board surface

 

Q. 49 Following is a problem from text book of class V: “There are 4 poles of measure 105 cm, 115 cm, 150 cm and 235 cm respectively. If they have to be cut into pieces of equal length, what is the maximum length of each piece ?”

This question is asked to

A. test knowledge of factors and multiples

B. check the skill of finding HCF

C. enhance problem solving skills using learnt concepts

D. give practice of word problems based on HCF and LCM

 

Q. 50 Following is a problem from text book of class III :

“Which mathematical operation will be used to solve the following problem . ? A milkman sold I410 litres of milk in 10 days. How many litres of milk did he sell in a day ?”

Which competence of Bloom’s cognitive domain is referred in the above question ?

A. Knowledge

B. Comprehension

C. Analysis

D. Synthesis

 

Q. 51 Rashid is studying in class V. He can classify various types of triangles in different categories but has difficulty in understanding the abstract proof for the sum of three angles in a triangle to be always 180. According to Piaget Cognitive Theory Rashid is · at 

A. Concrete operational stage

B. Formal operational stage

C. Sensorimotor stage

D. Pre-operational stage

 

Q. 52 According to NCF 2005

“Developing children’s abilities for mathematization is the main goal of mathematics

education. The narrow aim of school mathematics is io develop ‘useful’ capabilities.”

Here mathematization refers to develop child’s abilities

A. In performing all number operations efficiently including of finding square root and cube root

B. To formulate Geometry and independently. Theorems of their proofs

C. To translate word problems into linear equations.

D. To develop the child’s resources to think and reason mathematically, to pursue assumptions to their logical conclusion and to handle abstraction.

 

Q. 53 The highlights of a good textbook are that

A. They contain numerous exercises to give rigorous practice.

B. All concepts can be introduced through situations.

C. Only solved examples are included.

D. They must” be thick and heavy.

 

A. A and B

B. C and D

C. A and C

D. B and D

 

Q. 54 NCF 2005 emphasises that

A. Succeeding m Mathematics should be mandatory for every child.

B. Students should be tested first for their logico-mathematical ability.

C. Maths curriculum shall be separate for low achievers.

D. Maths shall be taught to selective students.

 

Q. 55 The difference between the smallest common multiple and biggest common factor of 5, 10 and 35 is

A. 30

B. 35

C. 65

D. 75

 

Q. 56 The number of factors of 105 is

A. 3

B. 4

C. 6

D. 8

 

Q. 57 If the time now is 2.17 P.M., what will be. the time 11 hours and 59 minutes from now? 

A. 11:57 A.M.

B. 9 : 59 A.M.

C. 2: 16A.M

D. 2.17A.M.

 

Q. 58 Number of degrees in three and one and half right angeles is :

A. 285

B. 295

C. 305

D. 315

 

Q. 59 11 ones + 11 tens +11 hundred equals

A. 144

B. 1221

C. 12321

D. 111111

 

Q. 60 The sum of five hundred nine and three thousand twenty eight is:

A. 3537

B. 3087

C. 837

D. 387

 

Q. 61 The name of the scientist· who first peeped into a mosquito stomach and proved that mosquitoes spread malaria and for his research was awarded Nobel Prize in medicine in December 1902 is

A. Charles Darwin

B. Gregor Mendel

C. George Mistral

D. Ronald Ross

 

Q. 62 Rajat said to his friend, “I cannot play because I am down with fever. I pass through a cycle of shivering, fever and headache and finally sweating. .After my blood test doctor prescribed me a bitter medicine.” Rajat . might be suffering from

A. Typhoid

B. Diarrhoea

C. Cholera

D. Malaria

 

Q. 63 Who was AI-Biruni ?

A. A Qutabshahi Sultan who ruled our country for about 40 years

B. A trader from Afghanistan who came to study the dryfruit markets of our country.

C. A traveller from Uzbekistan who wrote· a book which is helpful to know the past of our country

D. A traveller who travelled from Kashmir to Kanyakumari to study the culture of Indian people.

 

Q. 64 The animals that flre awake at night can see .objects

A. in all colours

B. only in black and white colours

C. in green colour only

D. in red colour only

 

Q. 65 Select the correct statements about elephant herd :

A. An elephant herd has· mainly females and baby elephants upto 14-15 years old.

B. An elephant herd comprises members of a particular family.

C. The oldest female is the leader of the herd.

D. An elephant herd may accommodate any· number of female elephant and the young ones.

 

A. AandB

B. AandC

C. Band D

D. C and D

 

Q. 66 Inside the petals, in the middle of a flower we find a thin powdery structure, called 

A. Anther

B. Pollen

C. Radicle

D. Stigma

 

Q. 67 If you go to Ahmedabad (Gujarat) by train, then at Ahmedabad railway station you will find that most of the vendors are selling

A. Dhokla with chutney and lemon rice

B. Chholay-bhature and lassi

C. Idli-chutney and Vada-chutney

D. Puri-shaak and thanda doodh

 

Q. 68 The birds move their neck very often because

A. they can fly.

B. the birds eyes are fixed.

C. the birds have small eyes.

D. their ears are covered with feathers.

 

Q. 69 After diagnosis a doctor says to a patient that there is less haemoglobin in his blood. Which of the following should he eat to make up the deficiency of iron ?

A. Rice, sugar, amla

B. Green leafy vegetables, wheat, orange

C. Jaggery, lemon, pea

D. Amla, green leafy vegetables,• jaggery

 

Q. 70 National Curriculum Framework, 2005 strongly · recommends that teaching of EVS at primary stage should primarily aim at

A. developing understanding of basic concepts of the subject.

B. memorizing basic principles of the subject.

C. linking cIassroom learning to life outside the school.

D. acquiring skills to carry out· ·experiments independently.

 

Q. 71 Which one of the following is not . consistent with the requirements of EVS curriculum at primary stage ?

A. It should equip the learners with knowledge and skills to enter the world of work.

B. · It should inculcate in learners a concern for environment.

C. It should engage learners m acquiring methods and processes leading to generation of new knowledge.

D. It should suit cognitive level of the learners.

 

Q. 72 Higher priority and space has been given in NCERT textbooks on EVS to

A. explain basic concepts of the subject.

B. provide opportunities to learner for contemplation and wondering.

C. provide exact definitions of technical terms.

D. include large number of practice questions.

 

Q. 73 Which one of the following is not an objective of including poems and stories in EVS textbooks ?

A. To develop interest in the subject.

B. To have a change in routine and monotonous content

C. To provide fun and enjoyment for learners.

D. To promote imaginative and creative ability in the learners.

 

Q. 74 Good EVS curriculum should be ‘true to the child, true to life and true to the subject.’ Which of the following characteristics of a curriculum does not meet the above requirements ?

A. It promotes the value of freedom from fear and prejudice

B. It requires the Ieamer to view the subject as a social enterprise

C. It emphasises more on processes of teaching and learning

D. It emphasizes more on terms and definitions.

 

Q. 75 Nalini wants to introduce the topic on ‘Animals – our friends’ to Class III · students. In order to ·introduce the topic more interestingly, the best teaching strategy would be to 

A. use a chart showing pictures of different animals.

B. draw pictures of different animals on the blackboard.

C. show a video film on animals and their usefulness.

D. ask the students to see pictures of animals given in the textbook.

 

Q. 76 Class V NCERT EVS textbooks · include a section ‘what we have learnt’ in the end of every chapter. It is suggested that answer to questions included in this section should not be assessed in terms of. right or wrong. · · This shift has been done because

A. children cannot · write correct · · answers at this stage.

B. it enhances convenience to teachers in assessment.

C. it helps the teacher to know how children are learning

D. it reduces subjectivity in assessment.

 

Q. 77 Experimenting, Exploring, Investigating amd Questioning constitute essential elements· of activE learning of EVS. A teacher arranges the following activities related to the concept of ‘Food we should eat’.

Which one of the above four activities satisfy the condition for active learning?

A. Draws the diagrams of all such foods on the blackboard.

B. Gives examples of different foods each in essential components of food.

C. Asks students to collect relate information from. all possible sources.

D. Shows a video on the topic.

 

Q. 78 While teaching the topic on ‘Air is everywhere’ to Class IV students, Gitika. plans to perform the following activities :

Which one of the above proposed activities is not relevant for teaching of the topic

effectively ?

A. Take the students to a field trip.·

B. Explain the · concept . through specific examples.

C. Use multimedia capsule to explain the concept.

D. Ask probing questions related to the topic

 

Q. 79 The section on ‘Do this and find out’ included in different topics in EVS textbooks aim at 

A. providing direct expenences. hands-on

B. improving performance in examination

C. learning definitions of scientific terms

D. keeping the students engaged at home.

 

Q. 80 A good assignment in EVS. should primarily aim at

A. revise the lesson for effective learning.

B. ensure better utilization oftime.

C. keep the students engaged and disciplined.

D. provide extended opportunities.

 

Q. 81 As an EV.S teacher, the major objective of organizing a field trip to a zoo should be

A. to provide fun and enjoyment to students.

B. to have a change in monotony of routine teaching schedule.

C. to provide active learning experience to students

D. to satisfy parents on quality of education.

 

Q. 82 Which one of the following is not an objective of study of EVS in relation to Social Sciences ?

A. It should enable children to question the existing ideas and practices.

B. It should enable children to grow up as responsible member of society

C. It should enable children to respect differences of · culturalpractices.

D. It should enable children to learn correct definition of key terms

 

Q. 83 Kavita. wants to emphasise more on social issues like poverty, illiteracy and class inequalities in an EVS class. Which one of the following learning experiences will be more effective to achieve this objective ?

A. Organizing special lectures on related issues.

B. Asking the students to prepare charts on related social issues.

C. Asking the students to undertake group projects to collect and analyse related information.

D. Asking the students to write slogans on related issues.

 

Q. 84 Formative Assessment in EVS at primary stage does not include

A. identification of learning gaps of students.

B. identification of deficiencies in teaching.

C. enhancement of students’ learning.

D. grading and ranking of students.

 

Q. 85 Given below . are some human activities :.

A. Digging of mines.

B. Constructing dams.

C. Collection of leaves and herbs to sell them in the market.

D. Weaving baskets from bamboo.

E. Making leaf plates out of fallen leaves.

The activities responsible for the disappearance of forests is/are

 

A. only A

B. A and B both

C. A,BandC

D. B,C,DandE

 

Q. 86 Select correct statements are out Bronze:

A, Bronze is an element like iron, silver and gold.

B. Bronze is made on melting copper and tin.

C. Bronze is very strong and is used in ·making cannons and statues.

D. The utensils made of Bronze are lighter and stronger than that of aluminium.

 

A. B and C

B. C and D

C. D and A

D. A and C

 

Q. 87 A person living in Gandhidham · (Gujarat) wants to visit first Bhopal (Madhya Pradesh) and then Hyderabad (Andhra Pradesh). The directions of his journey will be

A. First towards East and then towards South

B. First towards West and then towards South

C. First towards South and then towards West

D. First towards South and then towards East

 

Q. 88 On a city map it was mentioned “Scale 1 em = 110 metres”. If the distance between two localities on the map is 15 em, then the actual distance between the two localities is 

A. 1165 centimetres

B. 1100 metres

C. 1500 metres

D. 1.65 kilometres

 

Q. 89 Mount Everest is a part of

A. India

B. Tibet

C. Nepal

D. Myanmar

 

Q. 90 Study the following duties/ responsibilities

A. Help others in carrying their bags.

B. Let the group follow you and · keep at the front.

C. Ask those to stay back who cannot climb properly.

D. Look after those who are ··not well and arrange food for the group.

E. Find a good place to stop and rest.

Which of the above are the responsibilities of a group leader in mountaineering ?

 

A. A, Band C

B. B, C and D

C. C, D and E

D. A,D and E

 

Questions: 91 – 99

Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow (Q: Nos. 91 to 99) by selecting the most appropriate option :

Why do poets use poems to tell aboutsocial injustices ? Tht: answer is simple.  This way a poet can catch and hold the reader’s attention, his/her emotions. Usually poets in their works present facts in order to capture attention of many people. These are not new facts that are presented to an audience. Poems are always aimed at reaching feelings of people and, thus, pulling strings. Literature of every state shows all the complexity of every epoch. When the situation is the same at several countries, it has a worldwide significance. Before talking about poetry, we should answer the question:

What is poetry ? Poetry is a special way of describing situations, things, ideas, feelings. ·Poets present their ideas in short phrases.

A poem can be .compared to a photograph as it reflects real .life, real situations and feelings, In a poem a poet captures the exact moment and represents it the way he/she has seen it. When you read a poem you see the poet’s subjective evaluation of facts, situations and the epoch in general. Poets of the Romantic Movement wrote their poems to share their feelings. They wrote to help people: 

understand their time from the poet’s point of view

 

Q. 91 A poem reflects the culture of the

A. period it belongs to

B. historical past

C. imaginary life

D. present only

 

Q. 92 Here, the expression ‘pulling strings’ means

A. challenging beliefs

B. promoting popular notions

C. secretly controlling thoughts

D. exerting strength

 

Q. 93 A word in the passage which means a quality of being intricate is

A. general

B. photograph

C. complexity

D. evaluation

 

Q. 94 Romantic . Movement is a literary period when the poetry mostly

A. is religious and philosophical

B. dealt with the supernatural and violence

C. focused on self-reliance and independence

D. emphasised on emotion and “imagination

 

Q. 95 The structure of poetry is usually characterized by

A. sequences of two or more words without an ‘action word’

B. long winded sentences

C. lengthy descriptive stanzas

D. short, factual stanzas

 

Q. 96 An example of ‘subjective evaluation’ is

A. Everybody likes dishes prepared with potatoes.

B. The potato is a staple in some countries.

C. There are over 25 types of potatoes around the world.

D. The potato has a large percentage of starch content.

 

Q. 97 The meaning of the word ‘epoch’ is a

A. lengthy, complex poem

B. type of literary work in England

C. distinctive point of time

D. being great and impressive

 

Q. 98 The purpose of poetry is to ___ _ the reader.

A. distract

B. appeal to

C. disturb

D. confuse

 

Q. 99 The themes of poems are usually about

A. everyday happenings

B. heroism and death

C. romance

D. important life events

 

Questions: 100 – 105

Read the given poem and answer the questions that follow (Q. Nos. 100 to 105) by selecting the most appropriate option.

Between the Miles

Because existence can become severe

in one d_ay,

just sense me and I’ll be there.

In the mind’s eye,

I’m not so far away.

If you hold o~t your hand,

in the-whispers,

I’ll become the zephyr …

and besiege you.

If your eye’s upon the stars,

in the crystalline darkness,

I’ll become the moon.

And the light shall guide you.

If you rest upon the ground,

in the warmth,

I’ll become the grass.

And embrace you.·:,.

If you tum outside,

in the wetness,

I’ll become the rain.

An upon your forehead, kiss you.

If you free the air,

in the light of day,

I’ll become the sun.

And smile for you.

Between the miles- ·

if you need me.

If you need a friend.

Let me be the friend, I want to be. ·

Heather Stoop

 

Q. 100 ‘The’ zephyr’ is a

A. fine quality of cloth

B. scent or odour

C. strong stream of air

D. gentle, mild breeze

 

Q. 101 An example of a metaphor is

A. ‘I’ll become the grass.’

B. ‘Between the miles’

C. ‘I want to be.’

D. ‘If you rest upon the ground’

 

Q. 102 A synonym of the word ‘besiege’ is

A. surround

B. attack

C. befriend

D. trap

 

Q. 103 The theme of the poem is about

A. separation

B. relationship

C. travel

D. nature

 

Q. 104 The ‘crystalline darkness’ that surrounding is

A. black and sombre

B. in the moonlight

C. lit up by the stars only

D. pitch dark and quiet

 

Q. 105 In the poem, the poet suggests that friendship is unaffected by

A. individual independence

B. changing feelings

C. time and distance

D. differences in attitude

 

Q. 106 A learner’s competence in English will improve when she/he receives or· learning experience that is appropriate.

A. an equal level

B. a slightly higher level

C. a range of levels

D. a slightly easier, lower level

 

Q. 107 A ‘mental block’ associated with English language learning is

A. interest in Sports and Arts

B. disinterest in studies in generaL

C. lack of opportunities to use English

D. dyslexia-a disability.

 

Q. 108 A company labels its frozen snacks 75% fat free rather than contains 25% fat so that people will view them more positively. This is an example of a

A. prototype

B. phoneme

C. subjective utility

D. semantic slanting

 

Q. 109 When children first start to speak in sentences, their speech may be described as

A. babbling

B. exceptionally soft

C. telegraphic

D. multi-lingual

 

Q. 110 Which observation supports Noam Chomsky’s ideas about language acquisition ?

A. Children’s language development follows a similar pattern across cultures.

B. The stages of language development occur at about the same ages in most children

C. Children acquire language quickly and effortlessly.

D. All of these

 

Q. 111 What is the system of rules that governs how words can be meaningfully arranged to form phrases and sentences ?

A. Language

B. Syntax

C. Morpheme·

D. Phoneme

 

Q. 112 A twelve-year-old child enjoys using puns. This enjoyment indicates that she has 

A. semantic slanting

B. deductive reasoning

C. mental blocks

D. metalinguistic awareness

 

Q. 113 Did you really ________ the money yesterday?

A. knead

B. kneed

C. need

D. needed

 

Q. 114 You don’t smoke, ________ ? (tag question)

A. have you

B. are you

C. do you

D. don’t you

 

Q. 115 A ‘critical period’ during language learning is

A. the period during which language can be acquired with greater ease than any other time.

B. the length of time before a comprehensive assessment . takes place in class.

C. best preparatory period for any language project.

D. special time set aside for students to intensively practice language use.

 

Q. 116 The two skills required to take notes effectively are

A. using symbols and abbreviations instead of words.

B. re-writing a text, using your own wOrds

C. writing legibly with correct punctuation.

D. writing fluently, using conjunctions.

 

Q. 117 Remediation, when students find difficulty in the use of different ‘modals’ would be for them to

A. be given ample practice in using modals in a set of sentences.

B. frame sentences on their own and teacher corrects them.

C. learn about the structures outside the classroom through suitable activities.

D. practice by collaboratively completing tasks where structures are used integratively, in a variety of real life situations.

 

Q. 118 What is wrong with the following multiple choice question ?

Tick the most appropriate : The Metro theatre is located __ _ LodhiRoad.

(a) over

(b) at

(c) beside

(d) behind

 

A. All answers are wrong

B. Two are wrong

C. The statement IS not correctly framed

D. ‘Over’ is the correct answer

 

Q. 119 Receptive Language skills are

A. using grammatical structures accurately.

B. writing in a range of styles.

C. listening and reading for information.

D. being able to self-correct while using language.

 

Q. 120 The ‘Natural Order’ in the process of learning English suggests that, children

A. are slow at learning to speak when riot in school.

B. learn to read and write simultaneously.

C. are able to speak first and then listen

D. acquire some language structures earlier than others.

 

Questions: 121 – 129

Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow (Q. Nos. 121 to 129) by selecting the most appropriate option

1. The fossil remains of the first flying vertebrates, the pterosaurs, have intrigued paleontologists for more than two centuries. How such large creatures, which had wingspans from 8 to 12 metres, solved the problems of powered flight, and exactly what these creatures were-reptiles or birds – are among the questions scientists have puzzled over

2.Perhaps the least controversial assertion about the pterosaurs is that they were reptiles. Their skulls, pelvises and hind feet are reptilian. The anatomy of their wings suggests that they did not evolve. into the class of birds. In pterosaurs, a greatly elongated fourth finger of each forelimb supported a wmg like membrane. In birds the second finger is the principle strut of the wing. If the pterosaur walked or remained stationary, the fourth finger and with it the wing, could. only tum upward in an extended inverted V -shape alongside of the animal’s body. Both the pterosaurs and the birds have hollow bones, a feature that represents a saving in weight. In the birds, however, these bones are reinforced more massively by internal struts.

3.Although scales typically cover reptiles, the pterosaurs probably had hairy coats. The recent discovery of a pterosaur specimen covered in long, dense and relatively thick hair-like fossil material, was the first clear evidence that this reasoning was correct. Efforts to explain how the pterosaurs became air-borne have led to suggestions that they launched themselves by jumping . from cliffs, by dropping from trees, or even by rising into light winds from the crests of waves.

 

Q. 121 The skeleton of a pterosaur can be distinguished from a birds by the

A. size if its wing span

B. presence of hollow bones

C. hook-like projections at the hind feet.

D. the anatomy of its wing span.

 

Q. 122 Which is the characteristic of pterosaur?

A. They hung upside down like bats before flight

B. Flew to capture prey

C. Unable to fold their wing fully at rest

D. Lived mostly in the forest

 

Q. 123 The elongated finger in the ___ _ supported the outstretched wings.

A. pterosaurs

B. birds

C. both

D. neither

 

Q. 124 The · body of the pterosaurs was covered in

A. feathers

B. scales

C. fur

D. smooth skin

 

Q. 125 The pterosaurs flew by

A. jumping off a mountain ledge

B. pushed by wind before take of

C. jumping upwards with force

D. moment.um gained by running

 

Q. 126 A synonym for ‘compressed’, from the passage is

A. launch

B. dense

C. light

D. strut

 

Q. 127 The opposite of ‘contrqversial’ Is

A. questionable

B. uncertain

C. debatable

D. undisputed

 

Q. 128 It can be understood from the passage that scientists believe that the

A. large wings help pterosaurs to. fly great distances.

B. hollow bones showed they evolved from bats.

C. fossil remains explain how they flew

D. pterosaurs walked on all fours.

 

Q. 129 Fossils often left scientists in doubt whether the pterosaur

A. ever existed at all

B. how many lived at that period

C. their size and weight

D. their shape and gender

 

Questions: 130 – 135

Read the given passage and answer the . questions that follow (Q. Nos. 130 to 135) by selecting the most appropriate option :

1.A man found a cocoon of a butterfly. One day a small opening appeared. He sat and watched the butterfly for several hours as it struggled to force its body through that little hole. Then it seemed to stop making any progress. It appeared as if it had gotten as far as it could, and it could go no further: So the man decided to help the butterfly. He took al pair of scissors and snipped off the remaining bit of the cocoon. ‘fh.e butterfly then emerged easily. But it had a swollen body and small, shriveled wings. The man continued to watch the ‘butterfly because he expected that, . at any moment, the wings would enlarge and expand to be able to support the body, which would contract in time

2.Neither happened! In fact, the butterfly spent the rest of its life crawling around with a swollen body and shriveled wings. It never was able to fly. What the man, in his kindness and haste, did not understand was that the restricting cocoon and the struggle required for the butterfly to get through the tiny opening were God’s way of forcing fluid from the body of the butterfly into its wings so that it would be ready for flight once it achieved its freedom from the cocoon. 

 

Q. 130 The man’s first instinct was

A. leave the cocoon alone

B. help the butterfly

C. leave the butterfly alone

D. keep watching

 

Q. 131 The natural process would have the wings of the ·butterfly

A. unfold and stretch out

B. fold up and remain snug

C. half open and snug against the body

D. unfold.and remain stiff

 

Q. 132 A word that means ‘to make or become withered’ is

A. moistened

B. folded

C. wasted

D. shrivelled

 

Q. 133 The writer’s message in his/her essay is about

A. not to have any problems

B. need for struggles in life

C. escape pain at any cost

D. needless struggles in life

 

Q. 134 The essay is ____ in form. 

A. factual

B. descriptive

C. discursive

D. argumentative

 

Q. 135 A man noticed that the—‘——

A. butterfly was hidden

B. cocoon was growing

C. cocoon was moving

D. butterfly was e’merging

 

Q. 136 The ‘bottom up model’ of curriculum is one where

A. learning IS based on a set of software to make curriculum more Reamer friendly.

B. the curriculum that allows freedom for student mobility with increased choice of curricular activity and encourages learning by doing.

C. the learning process 1s geared towards career orientation.

D. a need-based distance education with indirect influence on students.

 

Q. 137 The Humanistic Approach is specifically tuned to the

A. mastery of academic disciplines with all their characteristic features .

B. application of learnt structure, content, concepts and principals to new situations.

C. processes that enable students to discover structures for themselves

D. process where sequence is taught along with how to present the related .contents .

 

Q. 138 A ‘special needs language classroom’ is ideally

A. exclusively furnished.

B. located separately.

C. integrates all types of learners.

D. has extra teachers to help regular teachers.

 

Q. 139 One of the challenges of ‘Behaviour Management’ in a senior class is

A. students’ readiness to use the smart board.

B. student’s lack of self study skills.

C. teachers’ preference to conduct group rather than individual work

D. teachers’ lack of self confidence.

 

Q. 140 To inculcate a ‘Never Give Up . Attitude’, a suitable activity is the one when students 

A. sang two popular songs and exhibited some of their art and craft works during the parent teacher meet.

B. ·made modifications to their paper planes and tested them. again, experimented with the best way to get them to go the distance and shared their finding.

C. in groups created graphs about the difficult situations that students have had to face in life.

D. managed to get the Principal’s permission to go out and play during the English period.

 

Q. 141 Assessing reading at Class VII, can be done most effectively through a

A. spoken qUiz based on the meanings of words and expressions.

B. written test based the characters and events in the story/text.

C. an oral interview to find out how much they have read.

D. writing a 50 word book/text _review as a small project.

 

Q. 142 Curriculum development follows the following sequence :

A. Formulation of objectives, assessment of needs, selection of texts/learning experiences, evaluation

B. Selection of texts/learning experiences, assessment of needs, formulation of objectives, evaluation

C. Assessment of needs, formulatjon (4) of objectives, selection of texts/learning expenences, evaluation of objectives, selection of texts/learning expenences, evaluation

D. Formulation of objectives, assessment of needs, evaluation, selection of texts/learning experiences

 

Q. 143 The learning experiences that offer a vicarious experience to learners are

A. real objects and specimens

B. abstract words, case study

C. display boards, film clips

D. field trips, observations

 

Q. 144 In Computer Aided Instruction [CAl), the ‘simulation mode’ is where learners

A. experience real life systems and phenomena.

B. receive bits of information followed by questions with immediate feedback.

C. a senes of exercises with ‘ repetition practice

D. get problems which are solved by a process of trial and error.

 

Q. 145 A ‘listening stimulus’

A. presents input to separate groups of students who gather again to share what they listened

B. presents an information ‘ gap activity such as giving directions.

C. is listening to a good commentary to review it.

D. enables students to discuss a set of criteria which they prioritize to complete and present a task.

 

Q. 146 The ‘interactional routine’ during speaking assessment includes a

A. negotiating meanings, taking turns and allowing others to take turns.

B. describing one’s school or its environs informally

C. ‘telephone’ conversation with another.

D. comparing two or more objects/places/event for the assessor

 

Q. 147 Retrieval skills in writing are

A. note making and note taking

B. diagramming and summarising

C. abilities to do extensive reference work

D. organizing information ·while reading/listening

 

Q. 148 ‘Awareness raising’ grammar· games encourage students to

A. think consciously about the structures they have learnt.

B. collaborate in completing a given activity.

C. engage and feel about human relationships while the teacher controls the structures.

D. use learnt structures to communicate with one another about a given theme.

 

Q. 149 Language acquisition

A. is the memorization and use of necessary vocabulary

B. involves a systematic approach to the analysis and comprehension of grammar as well as to the memorization of vocabulary.

C. refers to the process of learning a native or a second language because of the innate capacity of the human brain.

D. is a technique intended to simulate the environment in which children learn their native language.

 

Q. 150 Noah Chomsky’s reference to “deep structures” means a

A. hidden set of grammatical rules learnt through intensive study.

B. transformational grammar that -has led in tum to increased interest in comparative linguistics.

C. a trend that English is the most common-auxiliary language in the world.

D. universal wammar underlying all languages and corresponding to an innate capacity of the human brain

 

Answer Sheet 
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AnswerDDABCCCBBA
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AnswerCCABBABDBC
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AnswerDDABCCCABD
Question51525354555657585960
AnswerADAACACCBA
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AnswerDDCBBBABDC
Question71727374757677787980
AnswerABCDCCCAAA
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AnswerCDCDBAADBD
Question919293949596979899100
AnswerAACDAACBDD
Question 101102103104105106107108109110
AnswerAABDCCCDAD
Question 111112113114115116117118119120
AnswerBDCCAADDCB
Question121122123124125126127128129130
AnswerDCACADDACB
Question131132133134135136137138139140
AnswerADBCDBCCBB
Question141142143144145146147148149150
AnswerCCCACCBCBD

CDS(I) Exam 2018 Elementary Mathematics Previous Year Paper

CDSE 1 2018 Mathematics

Q. 1 5¹⁷ + 5¹⁸ + 5¹⁹ + 5²⁰ is divisible by

A. 7

B. 9

C. 11

D. 13

 

Q. 2 If a + b = 2c, then what is the value of {a / (a – c)} + {c / (b – c)} ?

A. -1

B. 0

C. 1

D. 2

 

Q. 3 If x = y¹/ᵃ, y = z ¹/ᵇ and z = x ¹/ᶜ where x ≠ 1, y ≠ 1, z ≠ 1, then what is the value of abc?

A. -1

B. 1

C. 0

D. 3

 

Q. 4 If 2b = a + c and y² = xz, then what is the x⁽ᵇ⁻ᶜ⁾ y⁽ᶜ⁻ᵃ⁾ z⁽ᵃ⁻ᵇ⁾ equal to?

A. 3

B. 2

C. 1

D. -1

 

Q. 5 Which one of the following is correct?

A. Decimal expansion of a rational number is terminating.

B. Decimal expansion of a rational number is non-terminating.

C. Decimal expansion of an irrational number is terminating.

D. Decimal expansion of an irrational number is non-terminating and non-repeating.

 

Q. 6 If the roots of equation px² + x + r = 0 are reciprocal to each other, then which of the following is correct?

A. p = 2r

B. p = r

C. 2p = r

D. p = 4r

 

Q. 7 If 65x – 33y = 97 and 33x – 65y = 1, then what is xy equal to?

A. 2

B. 3

C. -2

D. -3

 

Q. 8 If b/y + z/c = 1 and c/z + x/a = 1, then what is (ab + xy) / bx equal to?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 0

D. -1

 

Q. 9 If (a² – 1) / a = 5, then what is the value of (a⁶ – 1) / a³ ?

A. 125

B. -125

C. 140

D. -140

 

Q. 10 If x + y + z = 0, then what is (y + z – x)³ + (z + x – y)³ + (x + y – z)³ equal to? 

A. (x + y + z)³

B. 3 (x + y) (y + z) (z + x)

C. 24xyz

D. -24xyz

 

Q. 11 If (x + 3) is a factor of x³ + 3x² + 4x + k, the what is the value of k?

A. 12

B. 24

C. 36

D. 72

 

Q. 12 The smaller integer with 4 digits which is a perfect square is

A. 1000

B. 1024

C. 1089

D. None of the above

 

Q. 13 Which one of the following is a zero of the polynomial 3x³ + 4x² – 7 ?

A. 0

B. 1

C. 2

D. -1

 

Q. 14 There are two numbers which are greater than 21 and their LCM and HCF are 3003 and 21 respectively. What is the sum of these numbers?

A. 504

B. 508

C. 514

D. 528

 

Q. 15 If α and β are the roots of the equation ax² + bx + c = 0, then what is the value of the expression (α + 1) (β + 1) ?

A. (a + b + c) / a

B. (b + c – a) / a

C. (a – b + c) / a

D. (a + b – c) /a

 

Q. 16 The remainder when 3x³ + kx² + 5x – 6 is divided by (x + 1) is -7. What is the value of k? 

A. -14

B. 14

C. -7

D. 7

 

Q. 17 If f(x) and g(x) are polynomials of degree p and q respectively, then the degree of {f(x) ± g(x)} (if it is non-zero) is

A. Greater than min(p,q)

B. Greater than max(p,q)

C. Less than or equal to max(p,q)

D. Equal to min(p,q)

 

Q. 18 What is the value of [ {(√5 – √3) / (√5 + √3)} – {(√5 + √3) / (√5 – √3)} ] ?

A. -2√15

B. 2√15

C. √15

D. -√15

 

Q. 19 What is the value of [ { 1 / (1 + x⁽ᵇ⁻ᵃ⁾ + x⁽ᶜ⁻ᵃ⁾) } + { 1 / (1 + x⁽ᵃ⁻ᵇ⁾ + x⁽ᶜ⁻ᵇ⁾) } + { 1 / (1 + x⁽ᵃ⁻ᶜ⁾ + x⁽ᵇ⁻ᶜ⁾) } ] , where x ≠ 0 ?

A. -1

B. 0

C. 1

D. 3

 

Q. 20 The sum of a number and its square is 20. Then the number is

A. -5 or 4

B. 2 or 3

C. -5 only

D. 5 or -4

 

Q. 21 If the price of wheat rises by 25%, then by how much percent must a man reduce his consumption in order to keep his budget the same as before?

A. 15%

B. 20%

C. 25%

D. 30%

 

Q. 22 1 / 25 of the students who registered did not appear for the examination, 11 / 20 of those who appeared passed. If the number of registered students is 2000, the number who passed is

A. 1920

B. 1056

C. 1020

D. 864

 

Q. 23 What is the difference between 0.9̅ and 0.9?

A. 0

B. 0.099

C. 0.1

D. 0.09

 

Q. 24 If A : B = 1 : 2, B : C = 3 : 4, C : D = 2 : 3 and D : E = 3 : 4, then what is B : E equal to ? 

A. 3 : 2

B. 1 : 8

C. 3 : 8

D. 4 : 1

 

Q. 25 A work when done by 10 women is completed in 12 days. The same work can be completed in 8 days when done by 5 men. How many days will it take to complete when 6 women and 3 men are employed to perform the same job?

A. 12

B. 10

C. 8

D. 5

 

Q. 26 A man undertakes to do a certain work in 150 days. He employs 200 men. He finds that only a quarter of the work is done in 50 days. How many additional men should he employ so that the whole work is finished in time?

A. 75

B. 85

C. 100

D. 120

 

Q. 27 A train moving with a speed of 60 km per hour crosses an electric pole in 30 seconds. What is the length of the train in meters?

A. 300

B. 400

C. 500

D. 600

 

Q. 28 ₹ 120 is distributed among A, B and C so that A’s share is ₹ 20 more than B’s and ₹ 20 less than C’s. What is B’s share?

A. ₹ 10

B. ₹ 15

C. ₹ 20

D. ₹ 25

 

Q. 29 In the given table of inverse variation, what are the values of A, B, and C respectively? 

A. 10, -30, -1

B. 10, -1, 30

C. -30, 10, -1

D. -1, -30, 10

 

Q. 30 A person borrowed ₹ 5,000 at 5% rate of interest per annum and immediately lent it at 5.5%. After two years he collected the amount and settled his loan. What is the amount gained by him in this transaction?

A. ₹ 25

B. ₹ 50

C. ₹ 100

D. ₹ 200

 

Q. 31 At present, the average of the ages of a father and a son is 25 years. After seven years the son will be 17 years old. What will be the age of the father after 10 years?

A. 44 years

B. 45 years

C. 50 years

D. 52 years

 

Q. 32 If 5 tractors can plough 5 hectares of land in 5 days, then what is the number of tractors required to plough 100 hectares in 50 days?

A. 100

B. 20

C. 10

D. 5

 

Q. 33 A merchant commences with a certain capital and gains annually at the rate of 25%. At the end of 3 years, he has ₹ 10,000. What is the original amount that the merchant invested? 

A. ₹ 5,120

B. ₹ 5,210

C. ₹ 5,350

D. ₹ 5,500

 

Q. 34 Which one of the following decimal numbers is a rational number with denominator 37? 

A. 0.459459459 . . .

B. 0.459459459

C. 0.0459459459 . ..

D. 0.00459459 . . .

 

Q. 35 The annual income of a person decreases by ₹ 64 if the annual rate of interest decreases from 4% to 3.75%. What is his original annual income?

A. ₹ 24,000

B. ₹ 25,000

C. ₹ 25,600

D. ₹ 24,600

 

Q. 36 For 0 < m < 1, which one of the following is correct?

A. log₁₀ m < m² < m < m⁻¹

B. m < m⁻¹ < m² < log₁₀ m

C. log₁₀ m < m < m⁻¹ < m²

D. log₁₀ m < m⁻¹ < m < m²

 

Q. 37 A gentleman left a sum of ₹ 39,000 to be distributed after his death among his widow, five sons, and four daughters. If each son receives 3 times as much as a daughter receives, and each daughter receives twice as much as their mother receives, then what is the widow’s share?

A. ₹ 1,000

B. ₹ 1,200

C. ₹ 1,500

D. None of the above

 

Q. 38 Three numbers which are co-prime to each other, are such that the product of the first two is 286 and that of the last two is 770. What is the sum of the three numbers?

A. 85

B. 80

C. 75

D. 70

 

Q. 39 The age of a woman is a two-digit integer. On reversing this integer, the new integer is the age of her husband who is elder to her. The difference between their ages is one-eleventh of their sum. What is the difference between their ages?

A. 8 years

B. 9 years

C. 10 years

D. 11 years

 

Q. 40 A passenger train and goods train are running in the same direction on parallel railway tracks. If the passenger train now takes three times as long to pass the goods train, as when they are running in the opposite directions, then what is the ratio of the speed of the passenger train to that of the goods train? (Assume that the trains nm at uniform speeds) 

A. 2 : 1

B. 3 : 2

C. 4 : 3

D. 1 : 1

 

Q. 41 All odd prime numbers up to 110 are multiplied together. What is the unit digit in this product?

A. 0

B. 3

C. 5

D. None of the above

 

Q. 42 An alloy A contains two elements, copper, and tin in the ratio of 2 : 3, whereas an alloy B contains the same elements in the ratio of 3 : 4. If 20 kg of alloy A, 28 kg of alloy B and some more pure copper are mixed to form a third alloy C which now contains copper and tin in the ratio of 6 : 7, then what is the quantity of pure copper mixed in the alloy C?

A. 3 kg

B. 4 kg

C. 5 kg

D. 7 kg

 

Q. 43 A quadratic polynomial ax² + bx + c is such that when it is divided by x, (x – 1) and (x + 1), the remainders are 3, 6 and 4 respectively. What is the value of (a + b)?

A. 3

B. 2

C. 1

D. -1

 

Q. 44 If the average of 9 consecutive positive integers is 55, then what is the largest integer? 

A. 57

B. 58

C. 59

D. 60

 

Q. 45 The average of the ages of 15 students in a class is 19 years. When 5 new students are admitted to the class, the average age of the class becomes 18-5 years. What is the average age of the 5 newly admitted students?

A. 17 years

B. 17.5 years

C. 18 years

D. 18.5 years

 

Q. 46 A man can row at a speed of x km/hr in still water. If in a stream which is flowing at a speed of y km/hr it takes him z hours to row to a place and back, then what is the distance between the two places?

A. [z(x²-y²)] / 2y

B. [z(x²-y²)] / 2x

C. [(x²-y²)] / 2zx

D. [z(x²-y²)] / x

 

Q. 47 A water tank has been fitted with two taps P and Q and a drain pipe R. Taps P and Q fill at the rate of 12 liters per minute and 10 liters per minute respectively. Consider the following statements S1, S2 and S3 :

S1: Pipe R drains out at the rate of 6 liters per minute.

S2: If both the taps and the drain pipe are opened simultaneously, then the tank is filled in 5 hours 45 minutes.

S3: Pipe R drains out (fully) the filled tank in 15 hours 20 minutes.

To know what is the capacity of the tank, which one of the following is correct?

 

A. S2 is only sufficient.

B. S1, S2 ad S3 are necessary.

C. Any two out of S1, S2 and S3 are sufficient.

D. None of the above

 

Q. 48 A car has an average speed of 60 km per hour while going from Delhi to Agra and has an average speed of y km per hour while returning to Delhi from Agra (by traveling the same distance). If the average speed of the car for the whole journey is 48 km per hour, then what is the value of y?

A. 30 km per hour

B. 35 km per hour

C. 40 km per hour

D. 45 km per hour

 

Q. 49 An article is sold at a profit of 32%. If the cost price is increased by 20% and the sale price remains the same, then the profit percentage becomes

A. 10%

B. 12%

C. 15%

D. 20%

 

Q. 50 A, B, C, D and E start a partnership firm. Capital contributed by A is three times that contributed by D. E contributes half of A’s contribution, B contributes one-third of E’s contribution and C contributes two-thirds of A’s contribution. If the difference between the combined shares of A, D and E and the combined shares of B and C in the total profit of the firm is ₹ 13,500, what is the combined share of B, C and E? (The shares are supposed to be proportional to the contributions)

A. ₹ 13,500

B. ₹ 18,000

C. ₹ 19,750

D. ₹ 20,250

 

Q. 51 A pie chart is shown here. What is the angle (approximately) subtended by the Social Services Sector at the center of the circle?

A. 45⁰

B. 46⁰

C. 58⁰

D. 98⁰

 

Q. 52 The arithmetic mean of two numbers is 10 and their geometric mean is 8. What are the two numbers?

A. 15, 5

B. 12, 8

C. 16, 4

D. 18, 2

 

Q. 53 The arithmetic mean of 11 observations is 11. The arithmetic mean of the first 6 observations is 10.5 and the arithmetic mean of the last 6 observations is 11.5. What is the sixth observation?

A. 10

B. 10.5

C. 11

D. 11.5

 

Q. 54 What is sin⁴ θ – cos⁴ θ equal to for any real number θ?

A. 1

B. 1 – 2 sin² θ

C. 2 cos² θ + 1

D. 1 – 2 cos² θ

 

Q. 55 What is cot 1⁰ cot 23⁰ cot 45⁰ cot 67⁰ cot 89⁰ equal to?

A. 0

B. 1

C. 1/2

D. 1/3

 

Q. 56 What angle does the hour hand, of a clock describe in 10 minutes of time?

A. 1⁰

B. 5⁰

C. 6⁰

D. 10⁰

 

Q. 57 Consider the following statements :

1. (sec² θ – 1) (1 – cosec² θ) = 1

2. sin θ (1 + cos θ)⁻¹ + (1 + cos θ) (sin θ)⁻¹ = 2 cosec θ

Which of the above is / are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

 

Q. 58 Each side of a square subtends an angle of 60° at the tip of a tower of height h meters standing at the center of the square. If L is the length of each side of the square, then what is h² equal to?

A. 2L²

B. L² / 2

C. 3L² / 2

D. 2L² / 3

 

Q. 59 From a height of h units, a man observes the angle of elevation as α and angle of depression as β of the top and the bottom respectively of a tower of height H (> 4h). To what further height should he climb so that the values of angle of elevation and angle of depression get interchanged for the top and bottom of the tower?

A. H – h units

B. H – 2h units

C. H – 3h units

D. H – 4h units

 

Q. 60 If sec x cosec x = 2, then what is tanⁿ x + cotⁿ x equal to?

A. 2

B. 2ⁿ⁺¹

C. 2ⁿ

D. 2ⁿ⁻¹

 

Q. 61 If cos x + cos² x = 1, then what is sin² x + sin⁴ x equal to?

A. 1

B. 1.5

C. 2

D. 3

 

Q. 62 If sin A + cos A = p and sin³ A + cos³ A = q, then which one of the following is correct? 

A. p³ – 3p + q = 0

B. q³ – 3q + 2p = 0

C. p³ – 3p + 2q = 0

D. p³ + 3p +2q = 0

 

Q. 63 If x = [ (sec² θ – tan θ) / (sec² θ + tan θ) ], the which one of the following is correct? 

A. 1/3 < x < 3

B. x ∉ [1/3, 3]

C. -3 < x < -1/3

D. 1/3 ≤ x ≤ 3

 

Q. 64 ABC is a right-angled triangle with base BC and height AB. The hypotenuse AC is four times the length of the perpendicular drawn to it from the opposite vertex. What is tan C equal to?

A. 2 – √3

B. √3 – 1

C. 2 + √3

D. √3 + 1

 

Q. 65 ABC is a triangle right angled at C with BC = a and AC = b. If p is the length of the perpendicular from C on AB, then which one of the following is correct?

A. a²b² = p² (a² + b²)

B. a²b² = p² (b² – a²)

C. 2a²b² = p² (a² + b²)

D. a²b² = 2p² (a² + b²)

 

Q. 66 The radius and slant height of a right circular cone are 5 cm and 13 cm respectively. What is the volume of the cone?

A. 100π cm³

B. 50π cm³

C. 65π cm³

D. 169π cm³

 

Q. 67 Two equal circular regions of a greatest possible area are cut off from a given circular sheet of area A. What is the remaining area of the sheet?

A. A / 2

B. A / 3

C. 3A / 5

D. 2A / 5

 

Q. 68 If the ratio of the radius of the base of a right circular cone to its slant height is 1 : 3, what is the ratio of the total surface area to the curved surface area?

A. 5 : 3

B. 3 : 1

C. 4 : 1

D. 4 : 3

 

Q. 69 A right circular cone is sliced into a smaller cone and a frustum of a cone by a plane perpendicular to its axis. The volume of the smaller cone and the frustum of the cone are in the ratio 64 : 61. Then their curved surface areas are in the ratio

A. 4 : 1

B. 16 : 9

C. 64 : 61

D. 81 : 64

 

Q. 70 In a room whose floor is a square of side 10 m, an equilateral triangular table of side 2 m is placed. Four book-shelves of size 4 m x 1 m x 9 m are also placed in the room. If half of the rest of the area in the room is to be carpeted at the rate of ₹ 100 per square metre, what is the cost of carpeting (approximately)?

A. ₹ 7,600

B. ₹ 5,635

C. ₹ 4,113

D. ₹ 3,200

 

Q. 71 A region of area A bounded by a circle C is divided into n regions, each of area A/n, by drawing circles of radii r₁, r₂, r₃ … rₙ₋₁ such that r₁ < r₂ < r₃ < … rₙ₋₁ concentric with the circle C. If pₘ = (rₘ + 1) / rₘ where m = 1, 2, 3, …(n – 2), then which one of the following is correct?

A. p increases as m increases

B. p decreases as m decreases

C. p remains constant as m increases

D. p increases for some values of m as m increases and then decreases thereafter

 

Q. 72 What is the volume of a cone of maximum volume cut out from a cube of edge 2a such that their bases are on the same plane?

A. πa³

B. πa³ / 3

C. 2πa³ / 3

D. 3πa³ / 4

 

Q. 73 The radii of two circles are 4.5 cm and 3.5 cm respectively. The distance between the centers of the circles is 10 cm. What is the length of the transverse common tangent? 

A. 4 cm

B. 5 cm

C. 6 cm

D. 7 cm

 

Q. 74 There are as many square centimeters in the surface area of a sphere as there are cubic centimetres in its volume. What is the radius of the sphere?

A. 4 cm

B. 3 cm

C. 2 cm

D. 1 cm

 

Q. 75 The length of a line segment AB is 2 cm. It is divided into two parts at a point C such that AC² = AB X CB. What is the length of CB?

A. 3√5 cm

B. 3 – √5 cm

C. 5√3 cm

D. √5 – 1 cm

 

Q. 76 The locus of the mid-points of the radii of length 16 cm of a circle is

A. A concentric circle of radius 8 cm

B. A concentric circle of radius 16 cm

C. The diameter of the circle

D. A straight line passing through the centre of the circle

 

Q. 77 The curved surface area of a right circular cone is 1.76 m² and its base diameter is 140 cm. What is the height of the cone?

A. 10 cm

B. 10 √2 cm

C. 20 √2 cm

D. 10√15 cm

 

Q. 78 Consider the following statements :

1. The orthocentre of a triangle always lies inside the triangle.

2. The centroid of a triangle always lies inside the triangle.

3. The orthocentre of a right angled triangle lies on the triangle.

4. The centroid of a right-angled triangle lies on the triangle.

Which of the above statements are correct?

 

A. 1 and 2

B. 1 and 4

C. 2 and 3

D. 2 and 4

 

Q. 79 The locus of a point equidistant from two intersecting lines is

A. A straight line

B. A circle

C. A pair of straight lines

D. None of the above

 

Q. 80 Consider the following statements :

Two triangles are said to be congruent, if

1. Three angles of one triangle are equal to the corresponding three angles of the other triangle.

2. Three sides of one triangle are equal to the corresponding three sides of the other triangle,

3. Two sides and the included angle of one triangle are equal to the corresponding two sides and the included angle of the other triangle.

4. Two angles and the included side of one triangle are equal to the corresponding two angles and the included side of the other triangle.

Which of the above statements are correct?

 

 A. 1, 2 and 3

B. 1, 3 and 4

C. 1, 2 and 4

D. 2, 3 and 4

 

Q. 81 Given that the angles of a polygon are all equal and each angle is a right angle.

Statement 1: The polygon has exactly four sides.

Statement 2: The sum of the angles of a polygon having n sides is (3n – 8) right angles.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

A. Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are true and Statement 2 is the correct explanation of Statement 1

B. Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are true but Statement 2 is not the correct explanation of Statement 1

C. Statement 1 is true but Statement 2 is false

D. Statement 1 is false but Statement 2 is true

 

Q. 82 If the length of a side of a square is increased by 8 cm, its area increases by 120 square cm. What is the length of a side of the square?

A. 2.5 cm

B. 3.5 cm

C. 4.5 cm

D. 5.5 cm

 

Q. 83 What is the largest power of 10 that divides the product 1 x 2 x 3 x 4 . . . x 23 x 24 x 25? 

A. 2

B. 4

C. 5

D. None of the above

 

Q. 84 Walls (excluding their roofs and floors) of 5 identical rooms having length, breadth and height 6 m, 4 m, and 2.5 m respectively are to be painted. Paints are available only in cans of 1 L and one liter of paint can be used for painting 20 square meters. What is the number of cans required for painting?

A. 10

B. 12

C. 13

D. 14

 

Q. 85 A rectangular pathway having width 4.5 m and length 10 m will have to be tiled using square tiles of side 50 cm. Each packet of such tiles contains 20 pieces and costs ₹ 100. What will be the total cost of tiles for the pathway?

A. ₹ 1,200

B. ₹ 1,100

C. ₹ 1,000

D. ₹ 900

 

Q. 86 A cube of maximum volume (each corner touching the surface from inside) is cut from a sphere. What is the ratio of the volume of the cube to that of the sphere?

A. 3 : 4π

B. √3 : 2π

C. 2 : √3π

D. 4 : 3π

 

Q. 87 If the ratio of the circumference of the base of a right circular cone of radius r to its height is 3 : 1, then what is the area of the curved surface of the cone?

A. 3πr²

B. [ 2πr²√(4π²+9) ] / 3

C. [ πr²√(π²+1) ] / 3

D. [ πr²√(4π²+9) ] / 3

 

Q. 88 A wire is in the form of a circle of radius 98 cm. A square is formed out of the wire. What is the length of a side of the square? (Use π = 22/7)

A. 146 cm

B. 152 cm

C. 154 cm

D. 156 cm

 

Q. 89 In a triangle ABC, a, b and c are the lengths of the sides and p, q and r are the lengths of its medians. Which one of the following is correct?

A. 2 (p + q + r) = (a + b + c)

B. 2 (p + q + r) > 3 (a + b + c)

C. 2 (p + q + r) < 3 (a + b + c)

D. 11 (p + q + r) > 10 (a + b + c)

 

Q. 90 In a triangle ABC, a, b and c are the lengths of the sides and p, q and r are the lengths of its medians. Which one of the following is correct?

A. (a + b + c) < (p + q + r)

B. 3 (a + b + c) < 4 (p + q + r)

C. 2 (a + b + c) > 3 (p + q + r)

D. 3 (a + b + c) > 4 (p + q + r)

 

Q. 91 What is the area of the largest circular disc cut from a square of side 2 / √π units ?

A. π square units

B. 1 square units

C. π² square units

D. 2 square units

 

Q. 92 The product of the lengths of the diagonals of a square is 50 square units. What is the length of a side of the square?

A. 5√2 units

B. 5 units

C. 10 units

D. 2√5 units

 

Q. 93 The surface area of a closed cylindrical box is 352 square cm. If its height is 10 cm, then what is its diameter? (Use π = 22 / 7 )

A. 4 cm

B. 8 cm

C. 9.12 cm

D. 19.26 cm

 

Q. 94 A square and an equilateral triangle have the same perimeter. If the diagonal of the square is 6√2 cm, then what is the area of the triangle?

A. 12√2 cm²

B. 12√3 cm²

C. 16√2 cm²

D. 16√3 cm²

 

Q. 95 What is the area of the region bounded internally by a square of side of length ‘a’ and externally by a circle passing through the four comers of the square?

A. (π – 1) a² square units

B. (π – 1) a² / 2 square units

C. (π – 2) a² square units

D. (π – 2) a² / 2 square units

 

Q. 96 In the figure given, XA and XB are two tangents to a circle. If ∠ AXB = 50° and AC is parallel to XB, then what is ∠ ACB equal to?

A. 70⁰

B. 65⁰

C. 60⁰

D. 55⁰

 

Q. 97 In the figure given, p, q, r are parallel lines; I and m are two transversals. Consider the following:

1. AB : AC = DE : DF

2. AB X EF = BC X DE

Which of the above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

 

Q. 98 In the equilateral triangle ABC given in the figure, AD = DB and AE = EC. If I is the length of a side of the triangle, then what is the area of the shaded region?

A. 3√3 l² / 16

B. 3 l² / 16

C. 3√3 l² / 32

D. 3 l² / 32

 

Q. 99 In the figure given, SPT is a tangent to the circle at P and O is the center of the circle. If ∠ QPT = α, then what is ∠ POQ equal to?

A. α

B. 2α

C. 90⁰ – α

D. 180⁰ – 2α

 

Q. 100 In the figure given, two equal chords cut at point P. If AB = CD = 10 cm, OC = 13 cm (O is the center of the circle) and PB = 3 cm, then what is the length of OP?

A. 5 cm

B. 6 cm

C. 2√29 cm

D. 2√37 cm

 

 

Answer Sheet 
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Answer D C B C A B A A C D
Question 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Answer A B B A C D A A C A
Question 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Answer B B B C C C C C A B
Question 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Answer C C D A C A D B A C
Question 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Answer C B A C A B C C A B
Question 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Answer C C C D B B B B C A
Question 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Answer A C D A A A A D D C
Question 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Answer B C C D B A D C C D
Question 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Answer C B D C D C B C C B
Question 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Answer B B B D D B C A C D

CDS(I) Exam 2018 General Knowledge Previous Year Paper

CDSE 1 2018 General Knowledge

Q. 1 Which one of the following elements is used as a timekeeper in atomic clocks?

A. Potassium

B. Caesium

C. Calcium

D. Magnesium

 

Q. 2 Which one of the following elements is involved in the control of water content of the blood?

A. Potassium

B. Lithium

C. Rubidium

D. Caesium

 

Q. 3 Which one of the following gases dissolves in water to give acidic solution?

A. Carbon dioxide

B. Oxygen

C. Nitrogen

D. Hydrogen

 

Q. 4 Which one of the following elements is essential for the formation of chlorophyll in green plants?

A. Calcium

B. Iron

C. Magnesium

D. Potassium

 

Q. 5 Consider the following chemical reaction :

aFe₂O₃ (s) + bCO(g) —> cFe (s) + dC0₂

In the balanced chemical equation of the above, which of the following will be the values of the coefficients a, b, c and d respectively?

A. 3, 2, 3, 1

B. 1, 3, 2, 3

C. 2, 3, 3, 1

D. 3, 3, 2, 1

 

Q. 6 Why is argon gas used along with tungsten wire in an electric bulb?

A. To increase the life of the bulb

B. To reduce the consumption of electricity

C. To make the emitted light colored

D. To reduce the cost of the bulb

 

Q. 7 Which one of the following is the correct relation between the Kelvin temperature (T) and the Celsius temperature (t꜀)?

A. These are two independent temperature scales

B. T = t꜀

C. T = t꜀ -273.15

D. T = t꜀ + 273-.15

 

Q. 8 Sound waves cannot travel through a

A. copper wire placed in air

B. silver slab placed in air

C. glass prism placed in water

D. wooden hollow pipe placed in vacuum

 

Q. 9 Which one of the following is the value of one nanometer?

A. 10⁻⁷ cm

B. 10⁻⁶ cm

C. 10⁻⁴ cm

D. 10⁻³ cm

 

Q. 10 Consider the following statements :

1. There is no net moment on a body which is in equilibrium.

2. The momentum of a body is always conserved.

3. The kinetic energy of an object is always conserved.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

 

A. 1, 2 and 3

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 2 only

D. 1 only

 

Q. 11 Working of safety fuses depends upon

1. magnetic effect of the current

2 . chemical effect of the current

3. magnitude of the current

4. heating effect of the current

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1, 2, 3 and 4

B. 1, 2 and 3 only

C. 3 and 4 only

D. 4 only

 

Q. 12 Consider the following statements :

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

Statement I : By far the most common topographic form in a Karst terrain is the sinkhole.

Statement II : Topographically, a sinkhole is a depression that varies in depth from less than a meter to few hundred meters.

A. Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

B. Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I

C. Statement I is true but Statement II is false

D. Statement I is false but Statement II is true

 

Q. 13 Consider the following statements :

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

Statement I : Incised meanders are formed in the mature stage of a river.

Statement II : Incised meanders are characterized by rejuvenation and upliftment of land.

A. Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

B. Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I

C. Statement I is true but Statement II is false

D. Statement I is false but Statement II is true

 

Q. 14 Consider the following statements :

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

Statement I : Portions of glacial troughs may exhibit remarkably flat floors.

Statement II : The flat floor in a glacial trough is produced by uniform glacial erosion.

A. Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

B. Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I

C. Statement I is true but Statement II is false

D. Statement I is false but Statement II is true

 

Q. 15 Consider the following statements :

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

Statement I: In Tundra climate, biodiversity is comparatively less.

Statement II : Tundra climate has less reproductive warm period.

A. Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

B. Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I

C. Statement I is true but Statement II is false

D. Statement I is false but Statement II is true

 

Q. 16 Consider the following statements :

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

Statement I : Tides are the rise and fall of sea levels caused by the combined effects of the gravitational forces exerted by the Moon and the Sun and the rotation of the Earth.

Statement II : The Earth rotates from west to east.

A. Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

B. Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I

C. Statement I is true but Statement II is false

D. Statement I is false but Statement II is true

 

Q. 17 Consider the following statements :

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

Statement I : A person may suffer from tuberculosis if she/he frequently visits crowded place.

Statement II : Bacteria of tuberculosis spread through droplets by sneezing or coughing.

A. Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

B. Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I

C. Statement I is true but Statement II is false

D. Statement I is false but Statement II is true

 

Q. 18 Consider the following statements :

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

Statement I : Bioaccumulation is a process of progressive accumulation of heavy metals and pesticides in an organism.

Statement II : Large fishes of the pond are found to have higher concentration of pesticides than planktons of the same pond.

A. Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

B. Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I

C. Statement I is true but Statement II is false

D. Statement I is false but Statement II is true

 

Q. 19 Which one of the following is a true fish as per the biological system of classification?

A. Silverfish

B. Jellyfish

C. Cuttlefish

D. Flying fish

 

Q. 20 In which one of the following types of connective tissues in animals does fat get stored? 

A. Adipocyte

B. Chondrocyte

C. Osteocyte

D. Reticulocyte

 

Q. 21 Which one of the following pairs about organ/part that helps in locomotion is not correctly matched?

A. Euglena : Flagellum

B. Paramecium : Cilia

C. Nereis : Pseudopodia

D. Starfish : Tubefeet

 

Q. 22 Lysosome is formed from which of the following cell organelles?

A. Nucleus

B. Endoplasmic reticulum

C. Golgi bodies

D. Ribosomes

 

Q. 23 A protein is synthesized in the endoplasmic reticulum bound ribosomes and it targets to the inner thylakoid space of chloroplast. How many double-layered membrane layers it has to pass to reach its destination?

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 5

 

Q. 24 Which of the following causes adiabatic temperature changes in atmosphere?

A. Deflection and advection

B. Latent heat of condensation

C. Expansion and compression of the air

D. Partial absorption of solar radiation by the atmosphere

 

Q. 25 Which one of the following is applicable to collision-coalescence. process of precipitation? 

A. Clouds which do not extend beyond the freezing level

B. Clouds which extend beyond the freezing level

C. All types of clouds

D. Cirrocumulus cloud

 

Q. 26 Which one of the following places of India experiences highest atmospheric pressure during winter?

A. Jaisalmer

B. Leh

C. Chennai

D. Guwahati

 

Q. 27 Match List-1 with List-ll and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : 

List-I List-II

(Hypothesis/ Theory) (Propounder)

A. Planetesimal hypothesis 1. Kober

B. Thermal contraction theory 2. Chamberlin

C. Geosynclinal Orogen theory 3. Daly

D. Hypothesis of sliding continent 4. Jeffreys

A. A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3 

B. A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3

C. A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2

D. A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2

 

Q. 28 Bright light is found to emit from photographer’s flashgun. This brightness is due to the presence of which one of the following noble gases?

A. Argon

B. Xenon

C. Neon

D. Helium

 

Q. 29 Which one of the following is not a characteristic of a compound?

A. Composition is variable.

B. All particles of compound are of only one type.

C. Particles of compound have two or more elements.

D. Its constituents cannot be separated by simple physical methods.

 

Q. 30 Which of the following substances cause temporary hardness in water?

1. Mg(HC0₃)₂

2. Ca(HC0₃)₂

3. CaCl₂

4. MgS0₄

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 3 and 4

B. 2 and 3

C. 1 and 4

D. 1 and 2

 

Q. 31 Which one of the following elements will be an isobar of calcium if the atomic number of calcium is 20 and its mass number is 40?

A. Element with 20 protons and 18 neutrons

B. Element with 18 protons and 19 neutrons

C. Element with 20 protons and 19 neutrons

D. Element with 18 protons and 22 neutrons

 

Q. 32 Which of the following represents a relation for ‘heat lost = heat gained’?

A. Principle of thermal equilibrium

B. Principle of colors

C. Principle of calorimetry

D. Principle of vaporization

 

Q. 33 Two metallic wires made from copper have same length but the radius of wire 1 is half of that of wire 2. The resistance of wire 1 is R. If both the wires are joined together in series, the total resistance becomes

A. 2R

B. R/2

C. 5/4R

D. 3/4R

 

Q. 34 When the Sun is near the horizon during the morning or evening, it appears reddish. The phenomenon that is responsible for this observation is

A. reflection of light

B. refraction of light

C. dispersion of light

D. scattering of light

 

Q. 35 Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : 

List-I List-II

(Cloud) (Characteristic)

A. Cirrus 1. Rain-giving

B. Stratus 2. Featheiy appearance

C. Nimbus 3. Vertically growing

D. Cumulus 4. Horizontally spreading

 

A. A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2 

B. A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3

C. A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3

D. A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2

 

Q. 36 Which one of the following is not an exclusive right of the concerned coastal nations over Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ)?

A. Survey and exploitation of mineral resources of ocean deposits

B. Exploitation of marine water energy and marine organisms including fishing

C. Conservation and management of marine resources

D. Navigation of ships and laying down submarine cables

 

Q. 37 In which one of the following groups of States in India is the Integrated Coastal Zone Management (ICZM) Project being implemented as a pilot investment?

A. Gujarat, Kerala and Goa

B. Kerala, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh

C. Gujarat, Odisha and West Bengal

D. Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu

 

Q. 38 Which of the following statements about the National Water Academy (NWA) is/are correct?

1. The primary objective of the NWA is to function as Centre of Excellence in training for inservice engineers from Central and State organizations on various aspects of water resource planning.

2. The NWA is located in New Delhi.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

 

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

 

Q. 39 A wire of copper having length I and area of cross-section A is taken and a current / is flown through it. The power dissipated in the wire is P. If we take an aluminium wire having same dimensions and pass the same current through it, the power dissipated will be

A. P

B. < P

C. > P

D. 2P

 

Q. 40 The pressure of a fluid varies with depth h as P = Pₒ+pgh, where p is the fluid density. This expression is associated with

A. Pascal’s law

B. Newton’s law

C. Bernoulli’s principle

D. Archimedes’ principle

 

Q. 41 Consider the following constituent gases of the atmosphere :

1. Argon

2. Neon

3. Helium

4. Carbon dioxide

Which one of the following is the correct ascending sequence of the above gases in terms of the volume percentage?

 

A. 1-3-2-4

B. 1-4-2-3

C. 4-2-3-1

D. 2-4-1-3

 

Q. 42 Which one of the following Indian States has the highest percentage of Scheduled Tribe population to its total population?

A. Mizoram

B. Nagaland

C. Meghalaya

D. Arunachal Pradesh

 

Q. 43 Extrusive volcanoes are not found in which one of the following mountains?

A. Alaska

B. Rocky

C. Andes

D. Himalayas

 

Q. 44 Which one of the following crops is not cultivated in Karewas, the lacustrine deposit’s of sand, clay, loam, silt and boulders?

A. Saffron

B. Almond

C. Walnut

D. Ling nut

 

Q. 45 Consider the following tributaries of river Ganga :

1. Gandak

2. Kosi

3. Ghaghara

4. Gomti

Which one of the following is the correct order of the above rivers from east to west?

 

A. 3-4-1-2

B. 2-1-3-4

C. 2-3-1-4

D. 1-2-4-3

 

Q. 46 Which of the following National Parks of India are declared as World Heritage by UNESCO? 

1. Keoladeo National Park

2. Sundarbans National Park

3. Kaziranga National Park

4. Ranthambore National Park

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

 

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1, 2 and 3 only

C. 3 and 4 only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

 

Q. 47 Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

List-I List-II

(Railway Zone) (Headquarters)

A. North Central 1. Secunderabad

B. North Eastern 2. Jabalpur

C. West Central 3. Gorakhpur

D. South Central 4. Allahabad

 

A. A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1

B. A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1

C. A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4

D. A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4

 

Q. 48 Which one of the following statements about lymph is correct?

A. Lymph is formed due to leakage of blood through capillaries.

B. Lymph contains blood cells such as RBC.

C. Lymph is also circulated by the blood circulating heart.

D. Lymph only transports hormones

 

Q. 49 Which of the following classes of animals has/have three-chambered heart?

A. Pisces and Amphibia

B. Amphibia and Reptilia

C. Reptilia only

D. Amphibia only

 

Q. 50 Accumulation of which one of the following in the muscles of sprinters leads to cramp?

A. Lactic acid

B. Ethanol

C. Pyruvic acid

D. Glucose

 

Q. 51 Which one of the following statements about Exchange-Traded Fund (ETF) is not correct?

A. It is a marketable security.

B. It experiences price changes throughout the day.

C. It typically has lower daily liquidity and higher fees than mutual fund shares.

D. An ETF does not have its net asset value calculated once at the end of every day.

 

Q. 52 Which one of the following is the maximum age of joining National Pension System (NPS) under the NPS-Private Sector?

A. 55 years

B. 60 years

C. 65 years

D. 70 years

 

Q. 53 The Reserve Bank of India has recently constituted a high-level task force on Public Credit Registry (PCR) to suggest a road map for developing a transparent, comprehensive and near-real-time PCR for India. The task force is headed by

A. Sekar Kamam

B. Vishakha Mulye

C. Sriram Kalyanaraman

D. Y. M. Deosthalee

 

Q. 54 In October 2017, India sent its first shipment of wheat to Afghanistan as a part of commitment made by the Government of India to supply 1.1 million tonnes of wheat to that country on grant basis. The shipment was sent through

A. Iran

B. Pakistan

C. Tajikistan

D. China

 

Q. 55 Which of the following statements about the India Post Payments Bank (IPPB) is/are correct?

1. It has been incorporated as a Public Limited Company.

2. It started its operation by establishing two pilot branches at Hyderabad and Varanasi.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

 

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

 

Q. 56 Which of the following are the functions of the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC)?

1. Inquiry at its own initiative on the violation of human rights

2. Inquiry on a petition presented to it by a victim

3. Visit to jails to study the condition of the inmates

4. Undertaking and promoting research in the field of human rights

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

 

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2, 3 and 4 only

C. 1, 3 and 4 only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

 

Q. 57 A person is disqualified for being chosen as, and for being, a Member of either House of the Parliament if the person

1. holds any office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any State other than an office declared by the Parliament by law not to disqualify its holder

2 . is an undischarged insolvent

3. is so disqualified under the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution of India

4. is of unsound mind and stands so declared by a competent Court

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1, 2 and 4 only

B. 1, 2, 3 and 4

C. 3 and 4 only

D. 1, 2 and 3 only

 

Q. 58 According to the Election Commission of India, in order to be recognized as a ‘National Party’, a political party must be treated as a recognized political party in how many States?

A. At least two States

B. At least three States

C. At least four States

D. At least five States

 

Q. 59 Which one of the following statements with regard to Antrix Corporation Limited is correct? 

A. It is a commercial arm of the Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion.

B. It is under the administrative control of the Department of Space.

C. It is under the administrative control of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.

D. It is a commercial arm of the Department of Science and Technology.

 

Q. 60 Verses ascribed to poet-saint Kabir have been compiled in which of the following traditions?

1. Bijak in Varanasi

2. Kabir Granthavali in Rajasthan

3. Adi Granth Sahib

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

 

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1, 2 and 3

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 3 only

 

Q. 61 Around twelfth century, Sufi Silsilas began to crystallize in different parts of the Islamic world to signify

1. continuous link between the master and disciple

2 . unbroken spiritual genealogy to the Prophet Muhammad

3. the transmission of spiritual power and blessings to devotees

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

 

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

 

Q. 62 In the 10th Mandala of the Rigveda, which one of the following hymns reflects upon the marriage ceremonies?

A. Surya Sukta

B. Purusha Sukta

C. Dana Stutis

D. Urna Sutra

 

Q. 63 Which of the following statements about the Non-Cooperation Movement is/are correct? 

1. It was marked by significant participation of peasants from Karnataka.

2. It was marked by non-Brahmin lower caste participation in Madras and Maharashtra.

3 . It was marked by the lack of labour unrest in places like Assam, Bengal and Madras.

4. It was badly shaken by the Chauri Chaura incident in 1922 after which Gandhiji decided to continue with the movement on a much smaller scale.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

 

A. 1 only

B. 1, 2 and 4

C. 2 and 3

D. 2 only

 

Q. 64 Which one of the following was a focus country of the World Food India’, a mega food event held in November 2017 in New Delhi?

A. Germany

B. Japan

C. Denmark

D. Italy

 

Q. 65 Which one of the following States will host the Nobel Prize Series—India 2018 (Science Impacts Life) Exhibition?

A. Gujarat

B. Rajasthan

C. Goa

D. Madhya Pradesh

 

Q. 66 The Ministry of Communication has recently launched a Pan India scholarship programme for school children called Deen Dayal SPARSH Yojana’. The objective of the scheme is to increase the reach of

A. sports

B. philately

C. music

D. web designing

 

Q. 67 Which one of the following temples of India has won the ‘UNESCO Asia Pacific Award of Merit, 2017’ for cultural heritage conservation?

A. Kamakhya Temple, Guwahati

B. Sri Ranganathaswami Temple, Srirangam

C. Meenakshi Temple, Madurai

D. Kedarnath Temple, Kedarnath

 

Q. 68 Which one of the following teams was defeated by India to win the Women’s Hockey Asia Cup title, 2017?

A. Japan

B. China

C. South Korea

D. Pakistan

 

Q. 69 Which one of the following statements about India is not correct?

A. India has 12 major ports and about 200 non-major ports.

B. 95 percent of India’s trade by volume and 68 percent by value are moved through maritime transport.

C. India has a coastline of about 7500 km.

D. In the Maritime Agenda, 2010-2020, a target of 300 MT port capacity has been set for the year 2020 .

 

Q. 70 Which one of the following statements is not correct?

A. India joined MTCR in 2016

B. India submitted a formal application for membership of the NSG in 2016.

C. India proposed the Comprehensive Convention on International Terrorism in 1996.

D. The Commonwealth Heads of Government Meeting (CHOGM) was held in 2016 at Malta.

 

Q. 71 Which one of the following Amendments to the Constitution of India has prescribed that the Council of Ministers shall not exceed 15 percent of total number of members of the House of the People or Legislative Assembly in the States?

A. 91st Amendment

B. 87th Amendment

C. 97th Amendment

D. 90th Amendment

 

Q. 72 Which of the following about the role of Indian Coast Guard is/are correct?

1. Indian Coast Guard has been entrusted with the offshore security coordination authority

2. Lead intelligence agency for coastal and sea border

3. Coastal security in territorial waters

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 and 3 only

B. 1, 2 and 3

C. 1 and 2 only

D. 3 only

 

Q. 73 Which one of the following is India’s first indigenously designed and developed long-range subsonic cruise missile which can be deployed from multiple platforms?

A. Astra

B. Akash

C. Nirbhay

D. Shankhnaad

 

Q. 74 The Ministry of Power, Government of India has recently constituted a Committee to investigate the causes of the accident that occurred on 1st November, 2017 at Feroze Gandhi Thermal Power Plant Ltd., Unchahar, in Uttar Pradesh. Who among the following is the Chairman of the Committee?

A. Dr. L. D. Papney

B. Shri Dhawal Prakash Antapurkar

C. Shri Subir Chakraborty

D. Shri P. D. Siwal

 

Q. 75 In November 2017, an Indian short film. The School Bag won the Best Short Film Award at the South Asian Film Festival held at Montreal. Who among the following is the director of the film.

A. Anurag Kashyap

B. Dheeraj Jindal

C. Sujoy Ghosh

D. Samvida Nanda

 

Q. 76 In November 2017, India’s MC Mary Kom won the gold medal at the Asian Boxing Championship, 2017 held at Ho Chi Minh City in Vietnam. In which one of the following categories was she declared winner?

A. 48 kg

B. 51 kg

C. 54 kg

D. 57 kg

 

Q. 77 Which one of the following is the theme of the World Soil Day, 2017?

A. Soils and pulses, a symbol for life

B. Caring for the Planet starts from the Ground

C. Soils, a solid ground for life

D. Soils, foundation for family farming

 

Q. 78 Who among the following is the winner of the National Badminton Championship (Men), 2017?

A. Kidambi Srikanth

B. H. S. Prannoy

C. Ajay Jayaram

D. Sai Praneeth

 

Q. 79 Which of the following statements about the usage of the term ‘barbarian’ is/are correct?

1. It is derived from the Greek word ‘barbaros’ which means a non-Greek.

2. Romans used the term for the Germanic tribes, the Gauls and the Huns.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

 

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

 

Q. 80 Which one of the following statements is not correct?

A. Al-Biruni identifies the Sufi doctrine of divine love as self-annihilation with parallel passages from Bhagavad Gita

B. According to Al-Biruni, Sufi theories of Soul were similar to those in Patanjali’s Yoga Sutra.

C. The Hatha Yogic treatise Amrita Kunda had lasting impact on Sufism.

D. Hujwiri’s conversation with the Yogis shows that he was impressed with their theory of the division of the human body.

 

Q. 81 Consider the following statement :

“So much is wrung from the peasants, that even dry bread is scarcely left to fill their stomachs.”

Who among the following European travellers had made the above statement about the condition of peasantry in the Mughal Empire?

A. Francisco Pelsaert

B. Francois Bernier

C. Jean-Baptiste Tavernier

D. Niccolao Manucci

 

Q. 82 What is the name of the literary genre developed by the Khojas who are a branch of the Ismaili sect?

A. Ginan

B. Ziyarat

C. Raag

D. Shahada

 

Q. 83 Who was/were the 10th century composer(s) of the Nalayira Divya Prabandham? 

A. Alvars

B. Nayanars

C. Appar

D. Sambandar

 

Q. 84 Which one of the following is not a correct ascending order of commissioned ranks in the defence forces of India?

A. Lieutenant, Captain, Major, Lieutenant Colonel, Colonel, Brigadier, Major General, Lieutenant General, General

B. Flying Officer, Flight Lieutenant, Squadron Leader, Wing Commander, Group Captain, Air Commodore, Air Vice Marshal, Air Marshal, Air Chief Marshal

C. Flying Officer, Flight Lieutenant, Squadron Leader, Group Captain, Wing Commander, Air Commodore, Air Vice Marshal, Air Marshal, Air Chief Marshal

D. Sub Lieutenant, Lieutenant, Lieutenant ‘ Commander, Commander, Captain, Commodore, Rear Admiral, Vice Admiral, Admiral

 

Q. 85 Which of the following statements about Attorney General of India is/are not correct?

1. He is the first Law Officer of the Government of India.

2. He is entitled to the privileges of a Member of the Parliament.

3. He is a whole-time counsel for the Government.

4. He must have the same qualifications as are required to be a judge of the Supreme Court.

Select the correct answer using the code given below

 

A. 1, 2 and 3

B. 2 and 4

C. 3 only

D. 1 only

 

Q. 86 Under which one of the following Amendment Acts was Sikkim admitted into the Union of India?

A. 35th

B. 36th

C. 37th

D. 38th

 

Q. 87 Which one of the following became a part of China in 1997 following the principle of ‘one country, two systems’?

A. Tibet

B. Hong Kong

C. Xinjiang

D. Inner Mongolia

 

Q. 88 Which one of the following statements in respect of the States of India is not correct?

A. States in India cannot have their own Constitutions.

B. The State of Jammu and Kashmir has its own Constitution.

C. States in India do not have the right to secede from the Union of India.

D. The maximum number of members in the Council of Ministers of Delhi can be 15 percent of the total number of members in the Legislative Assembly.

 

Q. 89 Consider the following statements about National Wildlife Action Plan (NWAP) of India for 2017-2031 :

1. This is the Third National Wildlife Action Plan.

2. The NWAP is unique as this is the first time India has recognized the concerns relating to climate change impact on wildlife.

3. The NWAP has ten components.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

 

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

 

Q. 90 Growth in production (in percent) of which one of the following core industries in India during the period 2015-2016 was negative?

A. Natural gas

B. Refinery products

C. Fertilizer

D. Coal

 

Q. 91 eBiz is one of the integrated services projects and part of the 31 Mission Mode Projects (MMPs) under the National e-Govemance Plan of the Government of India. eBiz is being implemented under the guidance and aegis of the Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion, Ministry of Commerce and Industry by

A. Tata Consultancy Services

B. Infosys Technologies Limited

C. Wipro

D. HCL Technologies

 

Q. 92 Which of the following statements about the olive ridley turtles is/are correct?

1. They are the smallest and most abundant of all sea turtles found in the world.

2. They live in warm waters of Pacific, Atlantic and Indian Oceans.

3. The Coromandel Coast in India is the largest mass nesting site for the olive ridley turtles.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

 

A. 1, 2 and 3

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1 only

 

Q. 93 Consider the following statement :

“A sound body means one which bends itself to the spirit and is always a ready instrument at its service.”

The above statement is attributed to

A. Sardar Patel

B. Winston Churchill

C. Mahatma Gandhi

D. Baden-Powell

 

Q. 94 Who among the following was the founder of Phoenix Settlement?

A. Mahatma Gandhi

B. B. R. Ambedkar

C. Rabindranath Tagore

D. Swami Vivekananda

 

Q. 95 Name the platform used for ritual purposes by the kings of the Vijayanagara Empire. 

A. Mahanavami Dibba

B. Lotus Mahal

C. Hazara Rama

D. Virupaksha

 

Q. 96 The idea of ‘Farr-i Izadi’, on which the Mughal kingship was based, was first developed by which one of the following Sufi saints?

A. Shihabuddin Suhrawardi

B. Nizamuddin Auliya

C. Ibn al-Arabi

D. Bayazid Bistami

 

Q. 97 Which Buddhist text contains an account of the Mauryan Emperor Ashoka?

A. Vinaya Pitaka

B. Sutta Pitaka

C. Abhidhamma Pitaka

D. Mahavamsa

 

Q. 98 Which one of the following statements about Buddhist Stupas in India is not correct?

A. Ashoka played an important role in popularizing the Stupa cult.

B. They were repositories of relics of Buddha and other monks.

C. They were located in rural areas.

D. They were located close to trade routes.

 

Q. 99 Which one among the following States of India has the largest number of seats in its Legislative Assembly?

A. West Bengal

B. Bihar

C. Madhya Pradesh

D. Tamil Nadu

 

Q. 100 Which of the following statements about the Ordinance-making power of the Governor is/are correct?

1. It is a discretionary power.

2. The Governor himself is not competent to withdraw the Ordinance at any time.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

 

Q. 101 Which one of the following events is not correctly matched with the year in which it happened?

A. Inauguration of the SWIFT system of electronic interbank fund transfers worldwide—1985

B. Conclusion of the Uruguay Round of GATT— 1994

C. Inauguration of the World Trade Organization— 1995

D. Establishment of the first wholly electronic stock exchange (Nasdaq)— 1971

 

Q. 102 Consider the following statements about Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP) :

1. ITBP was raised in 1962.

2. ITBP is basically a mountain trained force.

3. ITBP replaced Assam Rifles in Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh in 2004-2005 for border guarding duty.

4. ITBP presently has 52 service battalions.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

 

A. 1, 2 and 4 only

B. 3 and 4 only

C. 1, 2, 3 and 4

D. 1, 2 and 3 only

 

Q. 103 Which one of the following is not an International Human Rights Treaty?

A. International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights

B. Convention on the Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination against Women

C. Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities

D. Declaration on the Right to Development

 

Q. 104 In the context of elections in India, which one of the following is the correct full form of VVPAT?

A. Voter Verifiable Poll Audit Trail

B. Voter Verifying Paper Audit Trail

C. Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail

D. Voter Verifiable Paper Account Trail

 

Q. 105 Which one of the following is not an objective of the Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana (PMKSY)?

A. To achieve convergence of investment in irrigation at the field level

B. To expand cultivable area under irrigation

C. To improve on-farm water use efficiency to reduce wastage of water

D. To protect farmers against crop failure due to natural calamities

 

Q. 106 Which one of the following statements about ‘Niryat Bandhu Scheme’ is correct?

A. It is a scheme for mentoring first generation entrepreneurs.

B. It is a scheme for crop protection.

C. It is a scheme for the vulnerable section of the society.

D. It is a scheme for monitoring rural poor.

 

Q. 107 Which one of the following statements about the Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana (DDU-GKY) is not correct?

A. It is a placement-linked skill training programme exclusively for rural girls

B. It aims to convert India’s demographic surplus into a demographic dividend.

C. The scheme aims to benefit more than 55 million poor rural folk.

D. It is a generational poverty alleviation programme.

 

Q. 108 Where is Hambantota Port located?

A. Iran

B. Sri Lanka

C. Japan

D. Pakistan

 

Q. 109 The projects under Coastal Berth Scheme of the flagship Sagarmala Programme are distributed over how many States?

A. Eight

B. Ten

C. Twelve

D. Fourteen

 

Q. 110 Which one of the following statements about the National Adaptation Fund for Climate Change is not correct?

A. The fund is meant to assist national and State level activities to meet the cost of adaptation measures.

B. This scheme has been taken as a Central Sector Scheme.

C. The Indian Council of Agricultural Research is the national implementing entity for the fund.

D. The scheme has been in force since 2015-2016.

 

Q. 111 ‘SAMPRITI-2017’ is a joint military exercise between armed forces of India and 

A. Bhutan

B. Bangladesh

C. Pakistan

D. Myanmar

 

Q. 112 The judgement of the Supreme Court of India in the Vishakha Case pertains to

A. sexual harassment in the work -place

B. Sati

C. dowry death

D. rape

 

Q. 113 The first BRICS Summit, after the inclusion of South Africa, was held at

A. Brasilia

B. Sanya

C. Yekaterinburg

D. Durban

 

Q. 114 Who deciphered the Brahmi and Kharoshthi scripts?

A. Piyadassi

B. Colin Mackenzie

C. Alexander Cunningham

D. James Prinsep

 

Q. 115 Which of the following is/are the feature(s) of the Brahmadeya Grants during c 600-1200 AD?

1. Their creation meant a renunciation of actual or potential sources of revenue by the State.

2. These grants could vary from a small plot to several villages.

3. Most grants were made in unsettled areas.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

 

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 2 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

 

Q. 116 Who is the author of Manimekalai?

A. Kovalan

B. Sathanar

C. Ilango Adigal

D. Tirutakkatevar

 

Q. 117 Which one of the following statements about the Elephanta Island is correct?

A. It was given its name by the British after a large elephant structure located there.

B. It contains one large cave.

C. It is well-known for a spectacular carving of Vishnu described in the Vishnudharmottara Purana.

D. It is associated with the Pashupata sect.

 

Q. 118 Which of the following statements about Sir Syed Ahmad Khan is/are correct?

1. He argued that India was a federation of ethnic communities based on common descent.

2. His philosophy was very similar to that of the Indian National Congress.

3. He imagined India as a Nation State based on individual citizen’s rights.

4. The curriculum at the Mohammedan Anglo-Oriental College blended Muslim theology and European empiricism.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

 

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3

C. 3 only

D. 1 and 4

 

Q. 119 Consider the following statements about impact of tax :

1. A tax is shifted forward to consumers if the demand is inelastic relative to supply.

2. A tax is shifted backward to producers if the supply is relatively more inelastic than

demand.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

 

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

 

Q. 120 According to the law of diminishing marginal utility, as the amount of a good consumed increases, the marginal utility of that good tends to

A. improve

B. diminish

C. remain constant

D. first diminish and then improve

 

Answer Sheet 
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Answer B A A C B A C D A A
Question 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Answer C B D A A B A B D A
Question 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Answer C B A C A B A B B A
Question 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Answer D C C D C D C A C A
Question 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Answer B A D D B B A C B A
Question 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Answer C C D A A D B B B B
Question 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Answer D A A D C B B B B D
Question 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Answer A B C D B A B B C A
Question 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Answer B A A C C B B A B A
Question 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Answer B B C A A A D D A C
Question  101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
Answer A D D C D A B A A C
Question  111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Answer B A B D A A B D C B

CDS(I) Exam 2018 English Previous Year Paper

CDSE 1 2018 English

Q. 1 Question consists of a sentence in quoted word/words followed by four words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the quoted word/words and mark your response accordingly.

A truly respectable old man is a “ripe” person.

A. senior

B. mature

C. perfect

D. seasoned

 

Q. 2 Question consists of a sentence in quoted word/words followed by four words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the highlighted word/words and mark your response accordingly.

The soldiers “repulsed” the enemy.

A. defeated

B. destroyed

C. rejected

D. repelled

 

Q. 3 Question consists of a sentence in quoted word/words followed by four words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the highlighted word/words and mark your response accordingly.

She deftly “masked” her feelings.

A. hid

B. flaunted

C. oblique

D. obscured

 

Q. 4 Question consists of a sentence in quoted word/words followed by four words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the highlighted word/words and mark your response accordingly.

“Vendors” must have licence.

A. One who drives a car

B. One who works in a hospital

C. One who is employed in food serving

D. One engaged in selling

 

Q. 5 Question consists of a sentence in quoted word/words followed by four words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the highlighted word/words and mark your response accordingly.

They will not “admit” children under fourteen.

A. avow

B. receive

C. accept

D. concede

 

Q. 6 Question consists of a sentence in quoted word/words followed by four words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the highlighted word/words and mark your response accordingly.

The jewels have been stolen from her bedroom.

A. embezzled

B. asserted

C. yielded

D. abdicated

 

Q. 7 Question consists of a sentence in quoted word/words followed by four words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the highlighted word/words and mark your response accordingly.

The soldier showed an “exemplary” courage.

A. flawed

B. faulty

C. ideal

D. boisterous

 

Q. 8 Question consists of a sentence in quoted word/words followed by four words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the highlighted word/words and mark your response accordingly.

They “served” fruits after the dinner.

A. assisted

B. obliged

C. waited

D. offered

 

Q. 9 Question consists of a sentence in quoted word/words followed by four words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the highlighted word/words and mark your response accordingly.

The committee should “recommend” his name to the government.

A. praise

B. advise

C. counsel

D. suggest

 

Q. 10 Question consists of a sentence in quoted word/words followed by four words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the highlighted word/words and mark your response accordingly.

Can medicines save us from death ?

A. hide

B. rescue

C. protect

D. liberate

 

Q. 11 Question consists of a sentence the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

(P) “the British manufacturers”/ (Q) “popularity of Indian textiles”/ (R) “were jealous of the” /(S) “from the very beginning” . The correct sequence should be

A. P Q R S

B. S P Q R

C. S P R Q

D. Q R S P

 

Q. 12 Question consists of a sentence the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

(P) “dress fashions changed and light cotton” /(Q) “of the English” /(R) “textiles began to replace” / (S) “the coarse woollens” The correct sequence should be

A. P R S Q

B. R S P Q

C. Q P R S

D. S P R Q

 

Q. 13 Question consists of a sentence the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

(P) “put pressure on their government” /(Q) “Indian goods in England” /(R) “the British manufacturers” /(S) “to restrict and prohibit” The correct sequence should be

A. P Q R S

B. S P R Q

C. R P S Q

D. Q R S P

 

Q. 14 Question consists of a sentence the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

(P) “however”/ (Q) “still held their own in foreign markets” / (R) “in spite of these laws” / (S) “Indian silk and cotton textiles” The correct sequence should be

A. Q P R S

B. S P R Q

C. S R P Q

D. R P S Q

 

Q. 15 Question consists of a sentence the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

(P) “and it led to rapid economic development” / (Q) “the Industrial Revolution” / (R)

“transformed the British” /(S) “society in a fundamental manner” The correct sequence should be

A. S P R Q

B. Q P R S

C. Q R S P

D. S R P Q

 

Q. 16 Question consists of a sentence the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

(P) “Muhammad Iqbal” / (Q) “the philosophical and religious outlook of people through his poetry” / (R) “profoundly influenced” / (S) “one of the greatest poets of modem India” The correct sequence should be

A. Q R S P

B. S R Q P

C. S R P Q

D. S P R Q

 

Q. 17 Question consists of a sentence the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

(P) “to accept any of the important” / (Q) “disillusionment” /(R) “demands of the nationalists produced” /(S) “the failure of the British government” The correct sequence should be 

A. S P R Q

B. P Q R S

C. S R Q P

D. Q R P S

 

Q. 18 Question consists of a sentence the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

(P) “showed that a backward” / (Q) “the rise of” / (R) “modern Japan after 1868” /(S) “Asian country could develop itself without Western control” The correct sequence should be 

A. P Q R S

B. S R Q P

C. P R Q S

D. Q R P S

 

Q. 19 Question consists of a sentence the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

(P) “and the current Hindu emphasis” /(Q) “and urged the people to imbibe the spirit of free-thinking” / (R) “on rituals, ceremonies and superstitions” (S) “Vivekananda condemned the caste system” The correct sequence should be

A. P Q R S

B. S P R Q

C. S P Q R

D. R P S Q

 

Q. 20 Question consists of a sentence the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

Mr. John (P) “who was hardly six months old” / (Q) “Charles” / (R) “as his son” / (S) “adopted” The correct sequence should be

A. S Q R P

B. P S Q R

C. R S P Q

D. P R S Q

 

Q. 21 The following sentence has a blank space and four words or group of words given after the sentence. Select the word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response accordingly.

In the face of the overwhelming mass of evidence against him, we cannot _________ him of the crime.

A. punish

B. absolve

C. release

D. ignore

 

Q. 22 The following sentence has a blank space and four words or group of words given after the sentence. Select the word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response accordingly.

I hope that the rain will _______ for our picnic tomorrow.

A. keep off

B. put off

C. set back

D. stay out

 

Q. 23 The following sentence has a blank space and four words or group of words given after the sentence. Select the word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response accordingly.

After the marathon, some of the competitors felt completely________ .

A. cut up

B. done in

C. done out

D. run out

 

Q. 24 The following sentence has a blank space and four words or group of words given after the sentence. Select the word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response accordingly.

Scarcely __________ the teacher entered the class when he heard the noise.

A. did

B. has

C. had

D. will have

 

Q. 25 The following sentence has a blank space and four words or group of words given after the sentence. Select the word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response accordingly.

I do not think he will ever ______ the shock of his wife’s death.

A. get by

B. get off

C. get through

D. get over

 

Q. 26 The following sentence has a blank space and four words or group of words given after the sentence. Select the word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response accordingly.

It is no use in crying over _______ .

A. spoiled milk

B. spirited milk

C. split milk

D. spilt milk

 

Q. 27 The following sentence has a blank space and four words or group of words given after the sentence. Select the word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response accordingly.

You must go to the station now, your brother_______ go just yet as his train leaves after three hours.

A. shouldn’t

B. mustn’t

C. wouldn’t

D. needn’t

 

Q. 28 The following sentence has a blank space and four words or group of words given after the sentence. Select the word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response accordingly.

Every rash driver becomes a _______ killer.

A. sure

B. reckless

C. potential

D. powerful

 

Q. 29 The following sentence has a blank space and four words or group of words given after the sentence. Select the word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response accordingly.

The country owes a deep debt of _______ for the freedom fighters.

A. patriotism

B. sincerity

C. remembrance

D. gratitude

 

Q. 30 The following sentence has a blank space and four words or group of words given after the sentence. Select the word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response accordingly.

The whole lot of young men was very enthusiastic but your friend alone was _________ .

A. quarrelsome

B. complaining

C. a wet blanket

D. sleepy

 

Q. 31 Question consists of a sentence with a quoted word/words followed by four words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the quoted word/words and mark your response accordingly

It was a mystery as to where the young girl had acquired such a “naive” belief

A. credulous

B. childlike

C. wise

D. innocent

 

Q. 32 Question consists of a sentence with a quoted word/words followed by four words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the quoted word/words and mark your response accordingly

It’s the only treatment “suitable” for cancer.

A. insufficient

B. impertinent

C. befitting

D. congenial

 

Q. 33 Question consists of a sentence with a quoted word/words followed by four words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the quoted word/words and mark your response accordingly

Some of the “criticisms” which they had to put up were very unfair

A. scold

B. scorn

C. appreciation

D. censure

 

Q. 34 Question consists of a sentence with a quoted word/words followed by four words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the quoted word/words and mark your response accordingly

I would beg of all friends not to rush to Birla house nor try to dissuade me or be “anxious” about me.

A. certain

B. composed

C. careless

D. heedless

 

Q. 35 Question consists of a sentence with a quoted word/words followed by four words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the quoted word/words and mark your response accordingly

It could not have been expected that, with such a bent of mind of the people, there should have been much “activity” for the cultivation of the physical sciences in this part of the world.

A. dull

B. dormant

C. indolence

D. idle

 

Q. 36 Question consists of a sentence with a quoted word/words followed by four words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the quoted word/words and mark your response accordingly

Indian culture has been, from time immemorial, of a “peculiar” cast and mould.

A. common

B. customary

C. natural

D. familiar

 

Q. 37 Question consists of a sentence with a quoted word/words followed by four words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the quoted word/words and mark your response accordingly

The princess “charming” was the centre of attraction today.

A. enchanting

B. hypnotic

C. repulsive

D. fascinating

 

Q. 38 Question consists of a sentence with a quoted word/words followed by four words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the quoted word/words and mark your response accordingly

Macbeth is a/an “abominable” figure.

A. abhorrent

B. repugnant

C. reputable

D. attractive

 

Q. 39 Question consists of a sentence with a quoted word/words followed by four words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the quoted word/words and mark your response accordingly

Terrorists profess “fanatical” ideology.

A. bigoted

B. militant

C. moderate

D. fervid

 

Q. 40 Question consists of a sentence with a quoted word/words followed by four words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the quoted word/words and mark your response accordingly

Rakesh is “vulnerable” to political pressure.

A. weak

B. unguarded

C. exposed

D. resilient

 

Q. 41 Each question consists of six sentences of a passage. The first and sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labelled P, Q, R and S. You are required to find the proper sequence of the four sentences and mark your response accordingly .

S1 : First and foremost, there are order and safety in our civilization.

S6 : Nobody may come and break into my house and steal my goods.

P : Thus in disputes between man and man, right has taken the place of might.

Q : If today I have a quarrel with another man, I do not get beaten merely because I am physically weaker.

R : I go to law, and the law will decide fairly between the two of us.

S : Moreover, the law protects me from robbery and violence.

The correct sequence should be

 

A. R Q P S

B. S R Q P

C. Q R P S

D. P R S Q

 

Q. 42 Each question consists of six sentences of a passage. The first and sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labelled P, Q, R and S. You are required to find the proper sequence of the four sentences and mark your response accordingly .

S1 : In democratic countries, men are equal before the law.

S6: And they live like this not for fun, but because they are too poor to afford another room.

 

P : While some few people live in luxury, many have not enough to eat, drink and wear.

Q : There are many families of five or six persons who live in a single room.

R : But the sharing-out of money – which means the sharing-out of food and clothing and houses – is still very unfair.

S : In this room they sleep and dress and wash and eat, and in this same room they die.

The correct sequence should be

 

A. R P Q S

B. P R S Q

C. Q S P R

D. S P R Q

 

Q. 43 Each question consists of six sentences of a passage. The first and sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labelled P, Q, R and S. You are required to find the proper sequence of the four sentences and mark your response accordingly .

S1 : Tomorrow it will be a year since we lost our great leader.

S6: Though he is no more with us, the qualities he possessed and the ideals he cherished remain with us.

P : To these he added a feminine sensitiveness to atmosphere.

Q : He was involved in the major events of his time.

R : He participated in them all while maintaining the highest standards of public conduct.

S : He was incomparably the greatest figure in our history – a man of dynamic force, intellectual power and profound vision.

 

The correct sequence should be

A. P S R Q

B. R Q P S

C. R P Q S

D. S P Q R

 

Q. 44 Each question consists of six sentences of a passage. The first and sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labelled P, Q, R and S. You are required to find the proper sequence of the four sentences and mark your response accordingly .

S1 : It would be possible to adduce many examples showing what could be done with the limited means’ at our ancestor’s disposal in the way of making life comfortable.

S6 : I hope, in this essay, to make that connection manifest.

P : What have comfort and cleanliness to do with politics, morals, and religion ?

Q : But look more closely and you will discover that there exists the closest connection between the recent growth of comfort and the recent history of ideas.

R : They show that if they lived in filth and discomfort, it was because filth and discomfort fitted in with their principles, political, moral and religious.

S : At a first glance one would say that there could be no causal connection between arm chairs and democracies, sofas and the family system, hot baths and religious orthodoxy. The correct sequence should be

 

A. P R Q S

B. R P S Q

C. Q S R P

D. Q S P R

 

Q. 45 Each question consists of six sentences of a passage. The first and sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labelled P, Q, R and S. You are required to find the proper sequence of the four sentences and mark your response accordingly .

S1: To most people, the term technology conjures up images of mills or machines.

S6 : It includes ways to make chemical reactions occur, ways to breed fish, plant forests or teach history.

P : The classic symbol of technology is still the assembly line created by Henry Ford half a century ago.

Q : The invention of the horse collar in the Middle Ages led to changes in agricultural methods and was as such a technological advance.

R : Moreover, technology includes techniques, as well as the machines that may or may not be necessary to apply them.

S : This symbol, however, has always been inadequate, for technology has always been more than factories and machines.

The correct sequence should be

A. S P R Q

B. P S Q R

C. R S P Q

D. Q S R P

 

Q. 46 Each question consists of six sentences of a passage. The first and sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labelled P, Q, R and S. You are required to find the proper sequence of the four sentences and mark your response accordingly .

S1 : I was the secretary of the Philosophical Society of the Patna College.

S6 : I have been to Kolkata many times since, but never has it been more pleasant than that first visit.

P : It was my first visit to the city and its impression on my mind was indelible.

Q : In that capacity, I once led a trip to Kolkata.

R : I felt I had landed in the midst of beautiful dream world of a fairy land.

S : I saw the roads, the trams, the skyscrapers and the magnificent shops at the

Chowranghee lane.

The correct sequence should be

A. Q P S R

B. P S Q R

C. S R P Q

D. S Q R P

 

Q. 47 Each question consists of six sentences of a passage. The first and sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labelled P, Q, R and S. You are required to find the proper sequence of the four sentences and mark your response accordingly .

S1 : Union finance ministry announced a series of concessions to trade and industry last month.

S6 : Manufacturers “feel that prices of certain components may not be brought down

because of the imposition of a 30 per cent duty where there was none earlier.

P : Together, these will result in a loss of revenue of Rs. 100 crore to the exchequer.

Q : Earlier, these were attracting customs duty varying fi-om zero to 100 per cent.

R : The chunk of the relief of Rs. 60 crore has gone to the electronics industry.

S : Raw materials and piece parts now carry customs duty of 30 per cent and 40 per cent ad valorem respectively.

The correct sequence should be

 

A. R S Q P

B. P R S Q

C. S Q P R

D. Q P R S

 

Q. 48 Each question consists of six sentences of a passage. The first and sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labelled P, Q, R and S. You are required to find the proper sequence of the four sentences and mark your response accordingly .

S1 : At four O’clock this morning, Hitler attacked and invaded Russia.

S6 : Under its cloak of false confidence, the German armies drew up in immense strength along a line which stretches fi-om the White Sea to the Black Sea.

P : No complaint had been made by Germany of its non-fulfilment.

Q : All his usual formalities of perfidy were observed with scrupulous technique.

R : No one could have expected that Hitler would do it.

S : A non-aggression treaty had been solemnly signed and was in force between the two countries.

The correct sequence should be

 

A. R Q S P

B. R S Q P

C. P S Q R

D. Q P S R

 

Q. 49  Each question consists of six sentences of a passage. The first and sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labelled P, Q, R and S. You are required to find the proper sequence of the four sentences and mark your response accordingly .

S1 : Roderick Usher has always been a quiet person who talked little of himself

S6 : In the part of the country where he lived, the “House of Usher” had come to mean both the family and its ancestral mansion.

P : Many of his ancestors had been famous for their artistic and musical abilities.

Q : Others were known for their exceptional generosity and charity.

R : Yet I did know that his family was an old one.

S : So I did not know too much about him.

The correct sequence should be

A. P Q R S

B. S R Q P

C. S P R Q

D. S R P Q

 

Q. 50 Each question consists of six sentences of a passage. The first and sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labelled P, Q, R and S. You are required to find the proper sequence of the four sentences and mark your response accordingly .

S1 : Mass production has increased the tendency to view things as useful rather than delightful.

 

S6 : Indeed a lowering of quality usually results when mass production is substituted for more primitive methods.

P : These various things share nothing with the buttons except money value.

Q : All the rest you wish to exchange for food, shelter, and many other things.

R : Suppose you are a manufacturer of buttons : however excellent your buttons may be, you do not want more than a few for your own use.

S : And it is not even the money value of the buttons that is important to you : what is important is profit which may be increased by lowering their quality

 

The correct sequence should be

A. P Q R S

B. R Q P S

C. S P Q R

D. Q R P S

 

Questions: 51 – 55

Over-population is the most pressing of India’s numerous and multi-faceted problems. In fact it has caused equally complex problems such as poverty, under-nourishment, unemployment and excessive fragmentation of land. Indisputably, this country has been facing a population explosion of crisis dimensions. It has largely diluted the fruits of the remarkable economic progress that the nation has made during the last four decades or so. The entire battle against poverty is thwarted by the rapid increase in the population. The tragedy is that while over-population accentuates poverty, the country’s stark poverty itself is in many areas a major cause of over population.

 

Q. 51 What is the irony behind the overpopulation of India ?

A. Under nourishment and unemployment are outcomes of flawed economic progress

B. Over-population gives birth to poverty, which (poverty) itself is the cause of overpopulation

C. Fragmentation of land is leading to over-population

D. Fruits of the remarkable economic progress are trickling down to the poor

 

Q. 52 What is the general tone of the passage ?

A. funny / humorous

B. sombre

C. didactic

D. tragic

 

Q. 53 What, in the author’s view, severely affects the economic growth of our country ?

A. poverty

B. illiteracy

C. over-population

D. None of the above

 

Q. 54 What, according to the author, is the biggest reason behind over-population ?

A. under-nourishment

B. unemployment

C. excessive fragmentation of land

D. poverty

 

Q. 55 “It has largely diluted the fruits of the remarkable economic progress”. Find antonym of the underlined word

A. coalesced

B. compounded

C. cheapened

D. consolidated

 

Questions: 56 – 60

To eat and not be eaten – that’s the imperative of a caterpillar’s existence. The leaf roller reduces its risks of being picked off by predators by silking together a temporary shelter in which to feed and rest. Adopting a different line of defense, the jelly slug extrudes a sticky translucent coating that may foul the mouth-parts of marauding ants. For its part, the aquatic larva, by its watery element, fashions a portable hideout from fragments of aquatic leaves. Cutting a serpentine trail as it feeds on tender young leaves, the minute citrus leaf miner spends its entire larval life inside its host plant, thus keeping its appetizing body safely under wraps.

 

Q. 56 Which varieties of caterpillars ‘build’ shelters to protect themselves ?

A. Leaf roller and aquatic larva

B. Leaf roller and jelly slug

C. Jelly slug and aquatic larva

D. Jelly slug and citrus leaf miner

 

Q. 57 Which one of the following caterpillars produces a sticky covering ?

A. Leaf roller

B. Jelly slug

C. Aquatic larva

D. Citrus leaf miner

 

Q. 58 Which one of the following pairs of words in the passage describes enemies of the caterpillar ?

A. Serpentine and host

B. Predator and marauding

C. Serpentine and marauding

D. Predator and host

 

Q. 59 Which one of the following makes itself unpalatable ?

A. Leaf roller

B. Jelly slug

C. Aquatic larva

D. Leaf miner

 

Q. 60 The main idea of the passage is that caterpillars

A. like to eat a lot

B. have to protect themselves while feeding

C. are good to eat

D. are not good to eat

 

Questions: 61 – 65

I have always opposed the idea of dividing the world into the Orient and the Occident. It is, however, the tremendous industrial growth that has made the West what it is. I think the difference, say, between India and Europe in the 12th or 13th century would not have been very great. Differences have been intensified by this process of industrialization which has promoted material wellbeing tremendously and which is destroying the life of the mind, which is in a process of deterioration, chiefly because the environment that has been created by it does not give time or opportunity to individuals to think. If the life of the mind is not encouraged, then inevitably civilization collapses.

 

Q. 61 The words “the Orient and the Occident” mean

A. the West and the East respectively

B. the East and the West respectively

C. the North and the South respectively

D. the South and the North respectively

 

Q. 62 The author believes that the difference between India and Europe in the 12th or 13th century was not very great because

A. Indians and Europeans mixed freely

B. Indians imitated the European way of living

C. Europeans imitated the Indian way of living

D. Industrialization had not yet taken place

 

Q. 63 In the opinion of the author, Industrialization is

A. an absolute blessing

B. an absolute curse

C. neither a blessing nor a curse

D. more of a curse than a blessing

 

Q. 64 The author says that the mental life of the world is in a process of deterioration because the modem generation is

A. endowed with low mental powers

B. too lazy to exert its mental powers

C. taught that physical activities are more important than mental

D. brought up in an environment unfavourable to the growth of the mental life

 

Q. 65 The title that best expresses the central idea of the passage is

A. difference between the Occident and the Orient

B. impact of Industrialization on our civilization

C. advantages of Industrialization

D. disadvantages of Industrialization

 

Questions: 66 – 70

In Delhi, it was forbidden by the law, at one time, to take a Dog into a public vehicle. One day a lady, accompanied by a pet dog, entered a bus. Wishing to evade the law, she placed her tiny dog in her dress pocket. It so happened that the person next to this lady was a pickpocket; and during the journey he carefully placed his hand into her pocket in search of her purse. Great was the horror to find instead a pair of sharp teeth inserted into his fingers. His exclamation of pain and surprise drew the attention of other passengers to him. 

 

Q. 66 Once the law in Delhi did not permit the people to

A. carry dogs into private vehicles

B. board a bus without ticket

C. carry dogs into a public vehicle

D. carry animals with them

 

Q. 67 In order to evade the law, the lady

A. hid the dog under the seat

B. got off the bus

C. gave the dog to a fellow passenger

D. put the dog in her pocket

 

Q. 68 The pick-pocket travelling with the lady

A. reported the matter to the conductor

B. put his hand in her pocket

C. took out the dog

D. asked the lady to get off

 

Q. 69 Which one of the following correctly expresses the meaning of “wishing to evade the law” ?

A. Wish to avoid following the law

B. Desire to follow the law blindly

C. Reluctance to break the law

D. Wish to change the law

 

Q. 70 Why did the pick-pocket exclaim with pain ?

A. He was hit by the lady

B. He was caught by the fellow passengers

C. He was bitten by the dog

D. He fell of the bus

 

Q. 71 Question has a sentence with three quoted parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any quoted part and indicate your response against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

“The best way in which you can”/ (a) “open the bottle is”/ (b) “by putting it into hot water first”/ (c) “No error.”/ (d)

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 72 Question has a sentence with three quoted parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any quoted part and indicate your response against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

“Somebody” (a) “who I enjoy reading”(b) “is Tagore.”(c) “No error.”(d)

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 73 Question has a sentence with three quoted parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any quoted part and indicate your response against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

“Electricity companies are”/(a) “working throughout”/(b) “days and nights to repair the damage.”/(c) “No error.”/(d)

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 74 Question has a sentence with three quoted parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any quoted part and indicate your response against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

“The student’s”/(a) “test results”/(b) “were.pleasant.”/(c) “No error”/(d)

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 75 Question has a sentence with three quoted parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any quoted part and indicate your response against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

“Two thirds of the book” /(a) “were” /(b) “rubbish.” (c) “No error.” /(d)

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 76 Question has a sentence with three quoted parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any quoted part and indicate your response against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

“You will be” /(a) “answerable for the court with” /(b) “any lies you have told.” /(c) “No error.” /(d)

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 77 Question has a sentence with three quoted parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any quoted part and indicate your response against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

“She felt” /(a) “terribly anxious for have to sing” (b) “in front of such a large audience.” /(c) “No error.” /(d)

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 78 Question has a sentence with three quoted parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any quoted part and indicate your response against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

“I don’t agree” /(a) “with smacking children” /(b) “if they do something wrong.” /(c) “No error” /(d)

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 79 Question has a sentence with three quoted parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any quoted part and indicate your response against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

“The fruit” /(a) “can be made” /(b) “to jam.” /(c) “No error.” /(d)

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 80 Question has a sentence with three quoted parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any quoted part and indicate your response against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

“I asked him” /(a) “what he” /(b) “has done.” /(c) “No error.” /(d)

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 81 Question has a sentence with three quoted parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any quoted part and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

“There have been a tornado watch” /(a) “issued for Texas country” /(b) “until eleven O’clock tonight.” /(c) “No error.” /(d)

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 82 Question has a sentence with three quoted parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any quoted part and indicate your response against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

“Although the Red Cross accepts blood from the donors” /(a) “the nurses will not leave you give blood,” /(b) “if you have just had cold.” /(c) “No error.” /(d)

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 83 Question has a sentence with three quoted parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any quoted part and indicate your response against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

“A prism is used to refract white light” /(a) “so it spreads out” /(b) “in a continuous

spectrum.” /(c) “No error.” /(d)

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 84 Question has a sentence with three quoted parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any quoted part and indicate your response against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

“Because of the movement of a glacier,” /(a) “the form” /(b) “of the Great Lakes was very slow.” /(c) “No error.” /(d)

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 85 Question has a sentence with three quoted parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any quoted part and indicate your response against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

“The new model costs” /(a) “twice more than” /(b) “last year’s model.” /(c) “No error. ” /(d)

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 86 Question has a sentence with three quoted parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any quoted part and indicate your response against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

“Gandhi ji always regretted for the fact” /(a) “that people gave him adulation while what he wanted” /(b) “was acceptance of his way of life.” /(c) “No error.” /(d)

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 87 Question has a sentence with three quoted parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any quoted part and indicate your response against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

“The party was” /(a) “ousted in power” /(b) “after twelve years.” /(c) “No error.” /(d)

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 88 Question has a sentence with three quoted parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any quoted part and indicate your response against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

“He was” /(a) “held in” /(b) “the prevention of Terrorism act.” /(c) “No error.” /(d)

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 89 Question has a sentence with three quoted parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any quoted part and indicate your response against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

“He has great fascination” /(a) “for each and every thing” /(b) “that are connected with drama.” /(c) “No error.” /(d)

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 90  Question has a sentence with three quoted parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any quoted part and indicate your response against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

“It’s no secret” /(a) “that the President wants to” /(b) “have a second term of office.” /(c) “No error.” /(d)

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Questions: 91 – 100

Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space with four words or group of words given. Select whichever word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response in the following questions accordingly. One of India’s greatest musicians is M.S. Subbulakshmi, affectionately known to most people as M.S. Her singing has brought ___[91]___ to millions of people not only ___[92]___ all parts of India, but in ___[93]___ countries around the world as well. ___[94]___ October 1966 Subbulakshmi was invited to ___[95]___ in New York, where people of ___[96]___ countries listened to her music ___[97]___. This was one of the greatest ___[98]___ ever given to any musician. For ___[99]___ together M.S. kept that international ___[100]___ spell-bound with the beauty of her voice and her style of singing.

 

Q. 91 Fill in the blank ___[91]___

A. sorrow

B. joy

C. boredom

D. pain

 

Q. 92 Fill in the blank ___[92]___

A. over

B. on

C. in

D. with

 

Q. 93 Fill in the blank ___[93]___

A. strange

B. unknown

C. other

D. familiar

 

Q. 94 Fill in the blank ___[94]___

A. Within

B. On

C. In

D. By

 

Q. 95 Fill in the blank ___[95]___

A. dance

B. sing

C. speak

D. enjoy

 

Q. 96 Fill in the blank ___[96]___

A. many

B. few

C. backward

D. all

 

Q. 97 Fill in the blank ___[97]___

A. attentively.

B. quietly.

C. indifferently.

D. boldly.

 

Q. 98 Fill in the blank ___[98]___

A. awards

B. honours

C. prizes

D. recognitions

 

Q. 99 Fill in the blank ___[99]___

A. seconds

B. minutes

C. hours

D. days

 

Q. 100 Fill in the blank ___[100]___

A. spectator

B. audience

C. viewer

D. businessmen

 

Questions: 101 – 105

Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space with four words or group of words given. Select whichever word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response in the following questions accordingly. The Second Anglo-Maratha War had shattered the __[101]__. of the Maratha chiefs, but not their spirit. The __[102]__. of their freedom rankled in their hearts. They made a last __[103]__. attempt to regain their independence and old __[104]__. in 1817. The lead in organizing a united front of the Maratha chiefs was taken by the Peshwa who was smarting under the __[105]__. control exercised by the British Resident. 

 

Q. 101 Fill in the blank ___[101]___

A. power

B. dignity

C. time

D. patience

 

Q. 102 Fill in the blank ___[102]___

A. disappearance

B. empowerment

C. loss

D. disappointment

 

Q. 103 Fill in the blank ___[103]___

A. horrible

B. desperate

C. poor

D. strong

 

Q. 104 Fill in the blank ___[104]___

A. prestige

B. army

C. rebellion

D. infantry

 

Q. 105 Fill in the blank ___[105]___

A. pleasant

B. satisfying

C. rigid

D. orthodox

 

Q. 106 Given below are some idioms / phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Choose the response (a), (b), (c) or (d) which is the most appropriate expression. “A hot potato.”

A. A dish to relish when it is hot

B. A very important person in a gathering

C. An issue which is disputed, and catching the attention of people

D. A way of thinking what someone is thinking

 

Q. 107 Given below are some idioms / phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Choose the response (a), (b), (c) or (d) which is the most appropriate expression. 

“You snooze, you lose.”

A. Don’t take it lightly

B. Don’t be over-enthusiastic

C. Don’t hesitate to do it

D. Don’t be pessimistic

 

Q. 108 Given below are some idioms / phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Choose the response (a), (b), (c) or (d) which is the most appropriate expression.

“I don’t buy it.”

A. I don’t believe it

B. I have no money

C. I summarize it

D. I don’t need it

 

Q. 109 Given below are some idioms / phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Choose the response (a), (b), (c) or (d) which is the most appropriate expression.

“My two cents.”

A. My money

B. My opinion

C. My decision

D. My explanation

 

Q. 110 Given below are some idioms / phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Choose the response (a), (b), (c) or (d) which is the most appropriate expression. 

“Out of the blue.”

A. Undoubtedly

B. Unexpectedly

C. Unbelievably

D. Unconcerned

 

Q. 111 Given below are some idioms / phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Choose the response (a), (b), (c) or (d) which is the most appropriate expression. 

“What a small world.”

A. What a coincidence

B. What a challenging task

C. What a narrow space

D. What a beautiful place

 

Q. 112 Given below are some idioms / phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Choose the response (a), (b), (c) or (d) which is the most appropriate expression.

“Down the road.”

A. In future

B. In the past

C. At present

D. No particular time

 

Q. 113 Given below are some idioms / phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Choose the response (a), (b), (c) or (d) which is the most appropriate expression.

“Raising eyebrows.”

A. To show surprise

B. Criticize

C. Support

D. Instruct

 

Q. 114 Given below are some idioms / phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Choose the response (a), (b), (c) or (d) which is the most appropriate expression.

“Step up the plate.”

A. Take control

B. Take a job

C. Take a responsibility

D. Take an opportunity

 

Q. 115 Given below are some idioms / phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Choose the response (a), (b), (c) or (d) which is the most appropriate expression.

“The Holy Grail.”

A. The pious place of worship

B. An important object or goal

C. A very important place

D. Someone’s destination of life

 

Q. 116 Given below are some idioms / phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Choose the response (a), (b), (c) or (d) which is the most appropriate expression.

“You scratch my back. I’ll scratch yours.”

A. Mutual favour

B. Mutual understanding

C. Mutual respect

D. Mutual disliking

 

Q. 117 Given below are some idioms / phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Choose the response (a), (b), (c) or (d) which is the most appropriate expression. 

“At the drop of a hat.”

A. Without any hesitation

B. When attempt fails and it’s time to start all over

C. To further a loss with mockery

D. Judging other’s intentions too much

 

Q. 118 Given below are some idioms / phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Choose the response (a), (b), (c) or (d) which is the most appropriate expression.

“Ball is in your court.”

A. Be happy at the dance / ball room

B. It’s up to you to make the decision

C. A very powerful person

D. Not speaking directly about an issue

 

Q. 119 Given below are some idioms / phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Choose the response (a), (b), (c) or (d) which is the most appropriate expression. 

“Best of both worlds.”

A. A happy person who is the best with all

B. All the advantages

C. To take on a task that is way too big

D. Someone whom everybody likes

 

Q. 120 Given below are some idioms / phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Choose the response (a), (b), (c) or (d) which is the most appropriate expression.

“Costs an arm and a leg.”

A. Severe punishment to someone

B. Too much consciousness about one’s body

C. Two difficult alternatives

D. Something very expensive 

 

Answer Sheet 
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Answer B D A D C A C D D B
Question 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Answer C A C D C B B A D A
Question 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Answer B D B C D D D C D C
Question 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Answer C A C B B A C C C D
Question 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Answer C A D C B A B A D B
Question 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Answer A B C D D A B B B B
Question 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Answer B D D D B C D B A C
Question 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Answer A D D B D B B D C D
Question 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Answer A B B D B A B B C D
Question 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Answer B A C C B A A B C B
Question  101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
Answer A C B A C C A A B B
Question  111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Answer A A A C B A A B B D

CDS(II) Exam 2017 Elementary Mathematics Previous Year Paper

CDSE 2 2017 Mathematics

Q. 1 What is the value of α (α ≠ 0) for which x²− 5x + α and x² −7x + 2α have a common factor?

A. 6

B. 4

C. 3

D. 2

 

Q. 2 How many numbers from 1 to 1000 are divisible by 2, 3 , 4 and 5 ?

A. 16

B. 17

C. 32

D. None of the above

 

Q. 3 What are the factors of x³ + 4x² − 11x − 30 ?

A. (x – 2), (x + 3) and (x + 5 )

B. (x + 2 ), (x + 3) and (x – 5 )

C. (x + 2), (x – 3) and (x + 5 )

D. (x + 2), (x – 3) and (x – 5 )

 

Q. 4 If x = 111…1 ( 20 digits), y = 333…3 (10 digits) and z = 222…2 ( 10 digits), then what is (x – y²) ⁄ z equal to ?

A. 1/2

B. 1

C. 2

D. 3

 

Q. 5 What is the positive value of m for which the roots of the equation 12x² + mx + 5 = 0 are in the ratio 3 : 2 ?

A. 5√10

B. 5√10/12

C. 5/12

D. 12/5

 

Q. 6 Let f(x) and g(x) be two polynomials ( with real coefficients ) having degrees 3 and 4 respectively. What is the degree of f(x)g(x) ?

A. 12

B. 7

C. 4

D. 3

 

Q. 7 If 5x³ + 5x² − 6x + 9 is divided by (x + 3), then the remainder is

A. 135

B. − 135

C. 63

D. − 63

 

Q. 8 The product of two non -zero expressions is (x + y + z)p³. If their HCF is p² , then their LCM is
A. (x + y + z)

B. (x + y + z)p²

C. (x + y + z)p⁵

D. (x + y + z)p

 

Q. 9 If the points P and Q represent the real numbers 0.83͞ and 0.62͞ on the number line, then the distance between P and Q is

A. 21/90

B. 19/90

C. 21/100

D. 56/90

 

Q. 10 Sudhir purchased a chair with three consecutive discounts of 20%, 12.5% and 5%.The actual deduction will be

A. 33.5%

B. 30%

C. 32%

D. 35%

 

Q. 11 A fruit seller has a certain number of mangoes of which 5% are rotten. He sells 75% of the remainder and he is left with 95 mangoes. How many mangoes did he have originally ? 

A. 500

B. 450

C. 400

D. 350

 

Q. 12 If a train crosses a km-stone in 12 seconds, how long will it take to cross 91 km-stones completely if its speed is 60 km/hr?

A. 1 hr 30 min

B. 1 hr 30 min 12 sec

C. 1 hr 51 min

D. 1 hr 1 min 3 sec

 

Q. 13 In a 100 m race, A runs 6 km/hr. If A gives B a start of 8 m and still beats him by 9 seconds , what is the speed of B ?

A. 4.6 km/hr

B. 4.8 km/hr

C. 5.2 km/hr

D. 5.4 km/hr

 

Q. 14 The quotient of 8x³ − y³ when divided by 2xy + 4x² + y² is

A. 2x + y

B. x + 2y

C. 2x – y

D. 4x – y

 

Q. 15 If (x + 2) is common factor of x² + ax + b and x² + bx + a, then the ratio a:b is equal to 

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 16 Let

ƒ(x) = a₀xⁿ + a₁xⁿ⁻¹ + a₂xⁿ⁻² +….aₙ₋₁ˣ + aₙ , where a₀,a₁,a₂,….aₙ are real numbers.

If ƒ(x) is divided by (ax-b), then the remainder is

A. f(b/a)

B. f(-b/a)

C. f(a/b)

D. f(-a/b)

 

Q. 17 Consider the following numbers :

1. 2222

2. 11664

3. 343343

4. 220347

Which of the above are not perfect squares ?

A. 1,2 and 3

B. 1,2 and 4

C. 2,3 and 4

D. 1,3 and 4

 

Q. 18 The product of the polynomials (x + 2),(x – 2),(x³ – 2x² + 4x – 8) and (x³ + 2x² + 4x + 8) is 

A. x⁸ – 256

B. (x⁴-16)²

C. (x⁴+16)²

D. (x²-4)⁴

 

Q. 19 The factors of x (x + 2) (x + 3) (x + 5) – 72 are ?

A. x, ( x + 3), (x +4 ) and (x – 6 )

B. (x – 1 ), ( x + 6 ) and (x² – 2x – 12)

C. (x – 1 ), ( x + 6 ) and (x² + 5x +12)

D. (x + 1 ), ( x – 6 ) and(x² – 5x – 12)

 

Q. 20 If the HCF of polynomials

f(x) = (x – 1 )(x² + 3x + a) and

g(x) = (x +2 )(x² + 2x +b) is (x² + x – 2),

then what are the values of a and b respectively?

 

A. 2, 2

B. 2, – 3

C. – 1, – 3

D. – 2, – 3

 

Q. 21 a ,b,c,d are non-zero integers such that ( ab ) divides ( cd ). If a and c are co prime, then which one of the following is correct ?

A. a is a factor of c

B. a is a factor of b

C. a is a factor of d

D. d is a factor of a

 

Q. 22 If the roots of the equation a(b – c)x² + b(c – a)x +c(a – b) = 0 are equal, then which one of the following is correct?

A. 2b = a + c

B. b² = ac

C. 2/b = 1/a + 1/c

D. 1/b = 1/a + 1/c

 

Q. 23 The non-zero solution of the equation ((a -x²) / bx) – ((b – x)/ c) = ((c – x )/ b )) – ((b – x²) / cx )) , where b ≠ 0 ,c ≠ 0 is

A. b² + ac / b² + c²

B. b² – ac / b² – c²

C. b² – ac / b² + c²

D. b² + ac / b² – c²

 

Q. 24 If k is an integer, then x² + 7x – 14[k²-7/8] = 0 has

A. Both integral roots

B. At least one integral root

C. No integral root

D. Both positive integral roots

 

Q. 25 How many numbers between 500 and 1000 are divisible by 13?

A. 36

B. 37

C. 38

D. 39

 

Q. 26 To maintain 8 cows for 60 days, a milkman has to spend ₹ 6,400. To maintain 5 cows for n days, he has to spend ₹ 4,800. What is the value of n ?

A. 46 days

B. 50 days

C. 58 days

D. 72 days

 

Q. 27 A student has to secure 40% of marks to pass an examination. he gets only 45 marks and fails by 5 marks. The maximum marks are

A. 120

B. 125

C. 130

D. 150

 

Q. 28 What is the value of u in the system of equations 3(2u + v)= 7uv, 3(u + 3v) = 11 uv? 

A. 0

B. 1/4

C. 1/2

D. 1

 

Q. 29 Five years ago, Ram was three times as old as Shyam. Four years from now, Ram will be only twice as old as Shyam. What is the present age of Ram?

A. 30 years

B. 32 years

C. 36 years

D. 40 years

 

Q. 30 Ram buys 4 chairs and 9 stools for ₹ 1,340. If he sells chairs at 10% profit and stools at 20% profit, he earns a total profit of ₹ 188. How much money did he have to pay for the chairs? 

A. ₹ 200

B. ₹ 400

C. ₹ 800

D. ₹ 1600

 

Q. 31 Which of the following is a correct statement ?

A. {x : x + 5 = 5} = φ

B. {x : x + 5 = 5} = {0}

C. {x : x + 5 = 5} = 0

D. {x : x + 5 = 5} = {φ}

 

Q. 32 If ab + bc + ca = 0, then what is the value of a²/a² – bc +b² / b² – ca + c² / c² – ab ?

A. 3

B. 0

C. 1

D. – 1

 

Q. 33 In a examination, 35% students failed in Hindi , 45% students failed in English and 20% students failed in both the subjects. What is the percentage of students passing in both the subjects ?

A. 0

B. 20

C. 30

D. 40

 

Q. 34 What is ( x – y ) ( y – z ) ( z – x ) / ( x – y )³ + ( y – z )³ + ( z – x )³ equal to ?

A. – 1/3

B. 1/3

C. 3

D. – 3

 

Q. 35 The value of √[1+√[1+√[1….]]]

A. Equals to 1

B. Lies between 0 and 1

C. Lies between 1 and 2

D. Is greater than 2

 

Q. 36 If log₁₀ 6 = 0.7782 and log₁₀ 8 = 0.9031, then what is the value of log₁₀ 8000 + log₁₀ 600 ?

A. 4.6813

B. 5.5813

C. 1.5813

D. 6.6813

 

Q. 37 30 men can complete a job in 40 days. However, after 24 days some men out of the assigned 30 left the job. The remaining people took another 40 days to complete the job. The number of men who left the job is

A. 24

B. 18

C. 12

D. 6

 

Q. 38 4 goats or 6 sheep can graze a field in 50 days. 2 goats and 3 sheep will graze it in 

A. 200 days

B. 150 days

C. 100 days

D. 50 days

 

Q. 39 A tap can fill a tub in 10 hours. After opening the tap for 5 hours it was found that a small outlet at the bottom of the tube was open and water was leaking through it. It was then immediately closed. It took 7 hours to fill the tub after closing the outlet. what time will be taken by the outlet to empty the full tub of water ?

A. 35 hours

B. 25 hours

C. 20 hours

D. 17 hours

 

Q. 40 A boy went to his school at a speed of 12km/hr and returned to his house at a speed of 8km/hr. If he has taken 50 minutes for the whole journey,what was the total distance walked?

A. 4 km

B. 8 km

C. 16 km

D. 20 km

 

Q. 41 If 78 is divided into 3 partss which are proportional to 1 , 1/3 , 1/6, then the middle part is 

A. 28/3

B. 13

C. 52/3

D. 55/3

 

Q. 42 There are 350 boys in the first three standards . The ratio of the number of boys in first and second standards is 2 : 3, while that of boys is second and third standards is 4 : 5.What is the total number of boys in first and third standards ?

A. 302

B. 280

C. 242

D. 230

 

Q. 43 The difference between the compound interest ( compounded annually) and simple interest on a sum of money deposited for 2 years at 5% annum is ₹ 15 . What is the sum of money deposited ?

A. ₹ 6000

B. ₹ 4800

C. ₹ 3600

D. ₹ 2400

 

Q. 44 When price rise by 12%, if the expenditure is to be the same,what is the percentage of consumption to be reduced ?

A. 50/3%

B. 72/7%

C. 83/5%

D. 75/7 %

 

Q. 45 A man rows down a river 18 km in 4 hours with the stream and returns in 10 hours. Consider the following statement :

1. The speed of the man against the stream is 1.8 km/hr.

2. the speed of the man in still water is 3.15 km/hr.

3. The speed of the stream is 1.35 km/hr.

which of the following statement are correct ?

 

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1,2 and 3

 

Q. 46 If a triangle has side 5,13 and 12 and θ is the acute angle of the triangle, then what is the value of ( sin θ + cos θ) ?

A. 5/13

B. 7/13

C. 12/13

D. 17/13

 

Q. 47 If 0 < x < π/2, then ( sin x + cosec x ) is

A. >2

B. <2

C. ≥ 2

D. ≤ 2

 

Q. 48 If sin θ = m² + n² / m² – n² and 0 < θ < π/2 , then what is the value of cos θ ?

A. 2mn / m² + n²

B. 2mn / m² – n²

C. m² + n² / 2mn

D. m² – n² / 2mn

 

Q. 49 If angle A of the triangle ABC is 30° and the circum-radius of the triangle is 10 cm, then what is the length of side BC ?

A. 5 cm

B. 10 cm

C. 5 √3 cm

D. 10 √3 cm

 

Q. 50 If A = sin 45° – sin 30° / cos 45° + cos 60° and B = sec 45° – tan 45° / cosec 45° + cot 45°, then which one of the following is correct?

A. A=B

B. A>B>0

C. A<B

D. B<A<0

 

Q. 51 If θ measured in radians is the angle between the hour hand and the minute hand of a clock when the time is 4 : 36 pm, then which one of the following is correct? 

A. 3π/5< θ <4π/5

B. 2π/5< θ <3π/5

C. π/5 ≤ θ ≤ 2π/5

D. 7π/15 ≤ θ ≤ 8π/15

 

Q. 52 Consider the following statement :

1. If 45°<θ<60°, then sec²θ + cosec² θ = α² for some real number α > 1.

2. If 0°<θ<45°, then 1 + cos θ / 1 – cos θ = x² for some real number x>2.

3. If 0°<θ<45°,then cos θ/1-tan θ + sin θ/ 1 – cot θ ≥2.

What is the number of true statements?

 

A. Zero

B. One

C. Two

D. Three

 

Q. 53 Let AB represent a building of height h metre with A being its top, B being its bottom. Let A’B’ represent a tower of height (h + x) metre (x >0 ) with A’ being its top and B’ being its bottom. Let BB’ = d metre. Let the angle of elevation of A’ as seen from A be 45° . 

Consider the following statements :

Statement 1 : h + x > d

Statement 2 : The angle of depression of B as seen A’ is less than 45°

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ?

A. Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are true and Statement 2 is the correct explanation of Statement 1.

B. Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are true but Statement 2 is not the correct explanation of Statement 1.

C. Statement 1 is true but Statement 2 is false.

D. Statement 1 is false but Statement 2 is true.

 

Q. 54 A man , standing at a point X on the bank XY of a river that cannot be crossed , observes a tower to be N α° E on the opposite parallel bank. He then walks 200 m along the bank to the point Y towards East , and finds the tower to be N β° W. From these observations , the breadth of the river will be

( Given that tan α° = 2 and tan β° = 0.5 )

A. 60 m

B. 70 m

C. 80 m

D. 90 m

 

Q. 55 The value of sin 1° / sin 1c where 1c represents 1 radian is

A. Equal to 1

B. Less than 1

C. Greater than 1 but less than 2

D. Greater than 2

 

Q. 56 The diameters of two given circles are in the ratio 12 : 5 and the sum of their areas is equal to the area of a circle of diameter 65 cm. What are their radii ?

A. 12 cm and 5 cm

B. 24 cm and 10 cm

C. 60 cm and 25 cm

D. 30 cm and 12.5 cm

 

Q. 57 A hallow cube is formed by joining six identical squares. A rectangle cello tape of length 4 cm and breadth 0.5 cm is used for joining each pair of edges. What is the total area of cello tape used ?

A. 12 square cm

B. 24 square cm

C. 36 square cm

D. 48 square cm

 

Q. 58 Two straight lines AB and AC include an angle. A circle is drawn in this angle which touches both these lines. One more circle is drawn which touches both these lines as well as the previous circle.If the area of the bigger circle is 9 times the area of the smaller circle, then what must be the angle of A?

A. 45°

B. 60°

C. 75°

D. 90°

 

Q. 59 An isosceles triangle is drawn outside on one of the sides of square as base in such a way that the perimeter of the complete figure is 7/6 times the perimeter of the original square. What is the ratio of the area of the triangle to the area of the original square ?

A. 1 : 1

B. 2 : 3

C. 1 : 2

D. 1 : 3

 

Q. 60 What is the area of the triangle whose sides are 51 cm, 37 cm and 20 cm?

A. 300 square cm

B. 305 square cm

C. 306 square cm

D. 307 square cm

 

Q. 61 Segment QR of length r is a tangent at Q to a circle of radius r with centre at P. What is the area of the part of the triangle PQR, which is outside the circular region ?

A. πr²/16

B. r²/2 – πr²/8

C. r²/2 – πr²/16

D. r²/4 – πr²/8

 

Q. 62 In a triangle ABC,AD is perpendicular on BC,If ∠BAC = 90°,AB = c ,BC = a ,CA = b and AD=p, then which one of the following is correct ?

A. p = abc

B. p² = bc

C. p = bc/a

D. p = ab/c

 

Q. 63 AB and CD are parallel chords of circle 3 cm apart . If AB= 4 cm , CD = 10 cm, Then what is the radius of the circle ?

A. 7 cm

B. √19 cm

C. √29 cm

D. 14 cm

 

Q. 64 The diagonals of a cyclic quadrilateral ABCD intersect at P and the area of the triangle APB is 24 square cm. If AB = 8 cm and CD = 5 cm, then what is the area of the triangle CPD ?

A. 24 square cm

B. 15 square cm

C. 12.5 square cm

D. 9.375 square cm

 

Q. 65 In an equilateral triangle ABC,BD is drawn perpendicular to AC. What is BD² equal to ?

A. AD²

B. 2AD²

C. 3AD²

D. 4AD²

 

Q. 66 The distance between the centres of two circles having radii 9 cm and 4 cm is 13 cm. What is the length of the direct common tangent of these circles ?

A. 12 cm

B. 11 cm

C. 10 cm

D. 9.5 cm

 

Q. 67 If PL, QM and RN are the altitudes of the triangle PQR whose orthocentre is O, then Q is the orthocentre of the triangle

A. OPQ

B. OQR

C. PLR

D. OPR

 

Q. 68 In triangle ABC, ∠C = 90° and CD is the perpendicular from C to AB.

If (CD)⁻² = (BD)⁻² + (CA)⁻², then which one of the following is correct ?

A. BC.CD = AB.CA

B. AB.BC = CD.CA

C. CA² + CB² = 2( AD² + CD² )

D. AB.CD = BC.CA

 

Q. 69 If a point O in the interior of a rectangle ABCD is joined with each of the vertices A,B,C and D, the OB² + OD² will equal to

A. 2OC² + OA²

B. OC² – OA²

C. OC² + OA²

D. OC² + 2OA²

 

Q. 70 A cylinder of height 2x is circumscribed by a sphere of radius 2x such that the circular ends of the cylinder are two small circles on the sphere. What is the ratio of the curved surface area of the cylinder to the surface area of the sphere ?

A. √3 : 4

B. √3 : 3

C. √3 : 2

D. √3 : 1

 

Q. 71 A cylinder vessel 60 cm in diameter is partially filled with water. A sphere 30 cm in diameter is gently dropped into vessel and is completely immersed. To what further height will the water in the cylinder rise ?

A. 20 cm

B. 15 cm

C. 10 cm

D. 5 cm

 

Q. 72 The vertical angle of a right circular cone is π/2 and the slant height is √2 r cm. What is the volume of the cone in cubic cm ?

A. πr³

B. 9πr³

C. πr³/3

D. 3πr³

 

Q. 73 The radii of the frustum of a right circular cone are in the ratio 2 :1 . What is the ratio of the volume of the frustum of the cone to that of the whole cone ?

A. 1 : 8

B. 1 : 4

C. 3 : 4

D. 7 : 8

 

Q. 74 From a solid cylinder whose height is 8 cm and of base radius 6 cm , a conical cavity of height 8 cm and of base radius 6 cm is formed by hollowing out. What is the inner surface area of the cavity ?

A. 6π square cm

B. 8π square cm

C. 10π square cm

D. 60π square cm

 

Q. 75 A tent has been constructed which is in the form of a right circular cylinder surmounted by a right circular cone whose axis coincides with axis of the cylinder. If the radius of the base of the cylinder is 50 m , the height of the cylinder is 10 m and the total height of the tent is 15 m , then what is the capacity of the tent in cubic metres ?

A. 37500π

B. 87500π/3

C. 26500π/3

D. 25000π

 

Q. 76 Two rectangular sheets of sizes 2π * 4 π and π * 5 π are available. A hollow right circular cylinder can be formed by joining a pair of parallel sided of any sheet. What is the maximum possible volume of the circular cylinder that can be formed by this way ? 

A. 4 π²

B. 8 π²

C. 1.25 π²

D. 6.25 π²

 

Q. 77 In a triangle ABC, the medians AD and BE intersect at G. A line DF is drawn parallel to BE such that F is on AC. If AC = 9 cm, then what is CF equal to ?

A. 2.25 cm

B. 3 cm

C. 4.5 cm

D. 6 cm

 

Q. 78 In a triangle PQR,X is a point on PR and Y is a point on QR such that PR=10 cm, RX =4 cm, YR = 2 cm , QR = 5 cm. Which one of the following is correct ?

A. XY is parallel to PQ

B. PQ = 2XY

C. PX = QY

D. PQ = 3XY

 

Q. 79 Consider the following statements in respect of three straight lines A,B and C on a plane :

1. If A and C are parallel and B and C are parallel; then A and B are parallel.

2. If A is perpendicular to C and B is perpendicular to C; then A and B are parallel.

3. If the acute angle between A and C is equal to the acute angle between B and C; then A and B are parallel.

Which of the above statements are correct?

A. 1,2 and 3

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 2 and 3 only

 

Q. 80 The diagonals of a rhombus are of length 20 cm and 48 cm. What is the length of a side of the rhombus ?

A. 13 cm

B. 26 cm

C. 36 cm

D. 39 cm

 

Q. 81 An arc of a circle subtends an angle π at the centre. If the lenghth of the arc is 22 cm, then what is the radius of the circle ? (Take π = 22/7)

A. 5 cm

B. 7 cm

C. 9 cm

D. 11 cm

 

Q. 82 One – fifth of the area of a triangle ABC is cut off by line DE drawn parallel to BC such that D is on AB and E is on AC .If BC = 10 cm, then what is DE equal to ?

A. √5 cm

B. 2√5 cm

C. 3√5 cm

D. 4√5 cm

 

Q. 83 There are 8 lines in a plane, no two of which are parallel.What is the maximum number of points at which they can intersect?

A. 15

B. 21

C. 28

D. none of the above

 

Q. 84 A closed polygons has six sides and one of its angle is 30° greater than each of the other five equal angles. What is the value of one of the equal angles?

A. 55°

B. 115°

C. 150°

D. 175°

 

Q. 85 Consider the following statements :

1. The point of intersection of the perpendicular bisectors of the sides of a triangle may lie outside the triangle.

2.The point of intersection of the perpendicular drawn from the vertices to the opposite sides of a triangle may lie two sides.

Which of the above statement is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

 

Questions: 86 – 90

In a university there are 1200 students studying four subjects, Mathematics, Statistics,Physics and Chemistry. 20% of the total number of students are studying Mathematics, one – fourth of the total number of students are studying Physics , 320 students are studying Statistics and remaining students are studying Chemistry.Three-fifth of the total number of the students studying Chemistry are girls. 150 boys are studying Mathematics. 60% of students studying Physics are boys. 250 girls are studying Statistics.

 

Q. 86 What is the total number of boys studying Statistics and Physics ?

A. 180

B. 240

C. 250

D. 310

 

Q. 87 The number of girls studying Statistics is what percent ( approximate ) of the total number of students studying Chemistry ?

A. 58.8

B. 73.5

C. 78.7

D. 80.6

 

Q. 88 In which subjects is the difference between the number of boys and girls equal?

A. Mathematics and Chemistry

B. Statistics and Chemistry

C. Mathematics and Physics

D. Mathematics and Statistics

 

Q. 89 What is the difference between the number of boys studying Mathematics and the number of girls studying Physics ?

A. 20

B. 80

C. 60

D. 80

 

Q. 90 What is the ratio of the total number of boys to the total number of girls?

A. 67:83

B. 17:26

C. 27:19

D. 189:179

 

Q. 91 Frequency density of class is computed by the ratio

A. Class frequency to the class width

B. Class frequency to total frequency

C. Class frequency to total number of classes

D. Cumulative frequency upto that class to total frequency

 

Q. 92 A small company pays each of its 5 category ‘C’ workers ₹20,000, each of its 3 category ‘B’ workers ₹25,000 and a category ‘A’ worker ₹65,000. The number of workers earning less than the mean salary is

A. 8

B. 5

C. 4

D. 3

 

Q. 93 A man travelled 12 km at a speed of 4 km/hr and further 10 km at a speed of 5 km/hr. What was his average speed?

A. 4.4 km/hr

B. 4.5 km/hr

C. 5.0 km/hr

D. 2.5 km/hr

 

Q. 94 The pie diagrams on the monthly expenditure of two families A and B are drawn with radii of the two circles taken in the ratio 16 : 9 to compare their expenditures. Which one of the following is the appropriate data used for the above mentioned pie diagrams?

A. ₹ 16000 and ₹ 9000

B. ₹ 8000 and ₹ 4500

C. ₹ 25600 and ₹ 8100

D. ₹ 4000 and ₹ 3000

 

Q. 95 Consider the following statements:

Statement 1: The value of a random variable having the highest frequency is mode.

Statement 2 : Mode is unique.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statement ?

A. Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are true and Statement 2 is the correct explanation of Statement 1.

B. Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are true but Statement 2 is not the correct explanation of Statement 1.

C. Statement 1 is true but Statement 2 is false.

D. Statement 1 is false but Statement 2 is true.

 

Q. 96 Which of the following is not correct ?

The proportion of various items in a pie diagram is proportional to the

A. Areas of slices

B. Angles of slices

C. Lengths of the curved arcs of the slices

D. Perimeters of the slices

 

Q. 97 The geometric mean of x and y is 6 and the geometric mean of x,y and z is also 6.Then the value of z is

A. 12

B. √6

C. 6

D. ∛6

 

Q. 98 The total number of live births in a specific locality during different months of a specific year was obtained from the office of the Birth Registrar.This set of data may be called

A. Primary data

B. secondary data

C. Recorded data

D. countable data

 

Q. 99 The height (in cm ) of 5 students are 150,165,161,144 and 155. What are the values of mean and median (in cm ) respectively ?

A. 165 and 161

B. 155 and 155

C. 160 and 155

D. 155 and 161

 

Q. 100 The average height of 22 students of a class is 140 cm and the average height of 28 students of another class is 152 cm. What is the average height of students of both the classes ?

A. 144.32 cm

B. 145. 52 cm

C. 146.72 cm

D. 147.92 cm

 

Answer Sheet 
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Answer B C B A A B A C A C
Question 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Answer C D D B C D A B C B
Question 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Answer B A C D D D C B A A
Question 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Answer D B A C B B C C C B
Question 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Answer A D A C B C C A C D
Question 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Answer D D A C A D B C A C
Question 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Answer A A A A C D A C B D
Question 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Answer D B CD B C C D C B B
Question 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Answer C D C B B A C B B C
Question 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Answer A A C C B C C C D B

 

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