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CDS(I) Exam 2016 General Knowledge Previous Year Paper

CDS(I) Exam 2016

GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

Q 1. Which one of the following is considered as ‘good cholesterol’ with reference to individuals facing the risk of cardio-vascular diseases and hypertension ?

(a) High Density Lipoprotein (HDL)

(b) Low Density Lipoprotein (LDL)

(d) Fatty acids

Q 2. Which of the following pairs of vitamin and disease is / are correctly matched ?

1. Vitamin A : Rickets

2. Vitamin B, : Beriberi

3. Vitamin C : Scurvy

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q 3. The rate of change of momentum of a body is equal to the resultant :

(a) energy

(b) power

(d) impulse

Q 4. After a hot sunny day, people sprinkle water on the roof-top because :

(a) water helps air around the roof-top to absorb the heat instantly

(b) water has lower specific heat capacity

(d) water has large latent heat of vaporisation

Q 5. Consider the following map of India

The areas marked in the map given above account for the production of which one of the following cash crops ?

(a) Cotton

(b) Groundnut

(d) Tobacco

Q 6. Pir Panjal Range in the Himalayas is a part of :

(a) Shiwalik

(b) Trans Himalaya

(d) Lesser Himalaya

Q 7. Consider the following statements regarding laterite soils of India :

1. Laterite soils are generally red in colour

2. Laterite soils are rich in nitrogen and potash

3. Laterite soils are well developed in Rajasthan and UP

4. Tapioca and cashew nuts grow well in this soil

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4

(d) 1, 2 and 4

Q 8. Which of the following statements regarding Mediterranean and Monsoon climate is / are correct ?

1. Precipitation in Mediterranean climate is in winter while in Monsoon climate it is mostly in summer

2. The annual range of temperature in Mediterranean climate is higher than the Monsoon climate

3. Rainy and dry seasons are found in both the climates

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q 9. The handle of pressure cookers is made of plastic because it should be made non conductor of heat. The plastic used there is the first man-made plastic, which is :

(a) Polythene

(b) Terylene

(d) Bakelite

Q 10. Methyl Isocyanate gas, which was involved in the disaster in Bhopal in December 1984, was used in the Union Carbide factory for production of:

(a) Dyes

(b) Detergents

(d) Pesticides

Q 11. The Germplasm is required for the propagation of plants and animals. Germplasm is the :

1. genetic resources

2. seeds or tissues for breeding

3. egg and sperm repository

4. a germ cell’s determining zone

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 2 and 4

Q 12. Dengue virus is known to cause low platelet count in blood of patient by :

1. interfering in the process of platelet production in bone marrow

2. infecting endothelial cells

3. binding with platelets

4. accumulating platelets in intestine

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q 13. The SI unit of mechanical power is :

(a) Joule

(b) Watt

(d) Joule-second

Q 14. Two systems are said to be in thermal equilibrium if and only if :

(a) there can be a heat flow between them even if they are at different temperatures

(b) there cannot be a heat flow between them even if they are at different temperatures (c) there is no heat flow between them

(d) their temperatures are slightly different

Q 15. ‘German silver’ is used to make decorative articles, coinage metal, ornaments etc. The name is given because :

(a) it is an alloy of copper and contains silver as one of its components

(b) Germans were the first to use silver

(d) it is an alloy of silver

Q 16. Plants contain a variety of sterols like stigmasterol, ergosterol, sitosterol etc., which very closely resemble cholesterol.

These plant sterols are referred as :

(a) Phytosterols

(b) Calciferols

(d) Lumisterols

Q 17. With which one of the following countries, India has signed an MoU under the International Cooperation on Brahmaputra and Sutlej rivers ?

(a) Pakistan

(b) China

(d) Nepal

Q 18. Headquarters of which one among the following Railway Zones in India is situated at the highest elevation from the mean sea level ?

(a) East Central Railway

(b) South Eastern Railway

(d) West Central Railway

Q 19. Stalactites and stalagmites are features of:

(a) glacial topography

(b) volcanic topography

(d) fluvial topography

Q 20. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the given planets in increasing order of their size (diameter)?

(a) Mars – Venus – Earth – Mercury – Uranus

(b) Mercury – Mars – Venus – Earth – Uranus

(d) Venus – Mercury – Mars – Earth – Uranus

Q 21. In artificial insemination (AI) process, which of the following is / are introduced into the uterus of the female ?

(a) Egg only

(b) Fertilized egg

(d) Egg and sperm

Q 22. Genetically modified (GM) crops contain modified genetic material due to :

1. introduction of new DNA

2. removal of existing DNA

3. introduction of RNA

4. introduction of new traits Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) i and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 4

Q 23. Which one of the following statements is correct ? The velocity of sound :

(a) does not depend upon the nature of media

(b) is maximum in gases and minimum in liquids

(d) is maximum in solids and minimum in gases

Q 24. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) Sound waves in gases are longitudinal in nature

(b) Sound waves having frequency below 20 Hz are known as ultrasonic waves

(d) Sound waves with high audible frequencies are sharp

Q 25. Which one of the following vitamins has a role in blood clotting ?

(a) Vitamin A

(b) Vitamin B

(d) Vitamin K

Q 26. Vitamin B₁₂, deficiency causes pernicious anemia. Animals cannot synthesize vitamin B₁₂. Humans must obtain all their vitamin B₁₂,, from their diet. The complexing metal ion in vitamin B₁₂, is:

(a) Mg²⁺ (Magnesium ion)

(b) Fe²⁺ (Iron ion)

(d) Zn²⁺ (Zinc ion)

Q 27. Consider the following statements :

1. Most of the coal and the ferrous group of minerals in India occur in the peninsula, south of the Vindhyas

2. The peninsular India once formed part of the super-continent which included Australia, Antarctica, Africa and South America

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q 28. The Mahatma Gandhi National Marine Park is located in :

(a) Pirotan Island

(b) Rameswaram

(d) Port Blair

Q 29. Which of the following statements is / are correct?

1. The earth is nearest to the Sun at Perihelion, which generally occurs on January 3

2. The earth is farthest away from the Sun at Perihelion, which generally occurs on July 4

3. The earth is farthest away from the Sun at Aphelion, which generally occurs on July 4

4. The earth is nearest to the Sun at Aphelion, which generally occurs on January 3

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 4

(d) 1 and 2

Q 30. Which one of the following islands is of volcanic origin ?

(a) Reunion island

(b) Andaman & Nicobar islands

(d) Maldives

Q 31. Glucose is a source of energy. Which one of the following types of molecule is Glucose ?

(a) Carbohydrate

(b) Protein

(d) Nucleic acid

Q 32. The living content of cell is called protoplasm. It is composed of:

(a) Cytoplasm only

(b) Cytoplasm and nucleoplasm

(d) Cytoplasm, nucleoplasm and other organelles

Q 33. Norman Borlaug won Nobel Peace Prize for his contributions in :

1. development of high-yielding crops.

2. modernization of irrigation infrastructure.

3. introduction of synthetic fertilizers and pesticides.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) I only

(b) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q 34. A myopic person has a power of -1.25 Dioptre. What is the focal length and nature of his lens ?

(a) 50 cm and convex lens

(b) 80 cm and convex lens

(d) 80 cm and concave lens

Q 35. A piece of ice, 100 g in mass is kept at 0 °C. The amount of heat it requires to melt at 0 °C is (take latent heat of melting of ice to be 333.6 J/g):

(a) 750.6 J

(b) 83.4 J

(d) 3.336 J

Q 36. Which one of the following hormones contains peptide chain?

(a) Oxytocin

(b) Corticotropin

(d) Cortisone

Q 37. Which one of the following is an example of chemical change?

(a) Burning of paper

(b) Magnetization of soft iron

(d) Preparation of ice cubes from water

Q 38. Which one of the following is the cause of long-term sea-level change?

(a) Atmospheric disturbance

(b) Change in marine water density

(d) Melting of ice sheets

Q 39. Consider the following tributaries of river Brahmaputra :

1. Lohit 2. Tista 3. Subansiri 4. Sankosh Arrange the above rivers from west to east:

(a) 2-4-3-1

(b) 2-3-4-1

(d) 3-1-2-4

Q 40. Which one of the following is the reason due to which the wind in the southern hemisphere is deflected towards its left ?

(a) Difference in the water masses of northern and southern hemisphere

(b) Temperature and pressure variations

(d) Rotation of the Earth

Q 41. The ‘eye’ of the cyclone has :

(a) abnormally high temperature and lowest pressure

(b) abnormally low temperature and pressure

(d) dense cloud cover and low pressure

Q 42. Which of the following statements is / are correct?

1. Acid rain reacts with buildings made from limestone

2. Burning of sulphur containing coal can contribute to acid rain

3. Eutrophication is an effective measure to control pollution

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q 43. Which one of the following statements about bar magnet is correct?

(a) The pole strength of the north-pole of a bar magnet is larger than that of the south-pole

(b) When a piece of bar magnet is bisected perpendicular to its axis, the north and south poles get separated

(d) The poles of a bar magnet are unequal in magnitude and opposite in nature

Q 44. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) Hydrogen is an element

(b) Hydrogen is the lightest element

(d) Hydrogen and oxygen form an explosive mixture

Q 45. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) Atoms of different elements may have same mass numbers

(b) Atoms of an element may have different mass numbers

(d) All the atoms of an element will always have same number of neutrons

Q 46. Which of the following statements regarding chemical industry in India is / are correct?

1. Chemical industry is one of the oldest industries in India

2. Dyestuff sector is one of the important segments of chemical industry

3. Textile industry accounts for the largest consumption of dyestuffs

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q 47. Which of the following statements about India’s scientific and research mission in Antarctica is / are correct?

1. The first scientific base station in Antarctica was Dakshin Gangotri

2. Dakshin Gangotri is now being used as supply base and transit camp

3. The Maitri station is manned throughout the year for scientific activities

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q 48. The synthetic rubber has replaced natural rubber for domestic and industrial purposes.

Which one of the following is the main reason behind that?

(a) Natural rubber is unable to meet the growing demand of different industries

(b) Natural rubber is grown in tropical countries only

(d) Natural rubber is not durable

Q 49. A person rings a metallic bell near a strong concrete wall. He hears the echo after 0.3 s. If the sound moves with a speed of 340 m/s, how far is the wall from him?

(a) 102 m

(b) 11 m

(d) 30 m

Q 50. Arrange the following popular hill stations of India in terms of their height (from highest to the lowest) from the mean sea level :

1. Mussoorie

2. Shimla

3. Ooty

4. Darjeeling

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 3-2-4-1

(b) 3-1-4-2

(d) 2-4-1-3

Q 51. Consider the following statements :

1. In Hind Swaraj, Mahatma Gandhi formulates a conception of good life for the individual as well as the society

2. Hind Swaraj was the outcome of the experience of Gandhi’s prolonged struggle against Colonial Raj in India Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(a) I only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q 52. Which of the following is / are Constitutional Body / Bodies?

1. National Commission for Scheduled Tribes

2. National Commission for Women

3. National Commission for Minorities

4. National Human Rights Commission

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) l only

(b) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q 53. Which of the following statements relating to the Bandung Conference on Afro-Asian Resurgence (1955) are correct?

1. Bandung Conference was organized by Indonesia, Myanmar (Burma), Ceylon (Sri Lanka), India, and Pakistan in which 29 countries representing more than half of the world’s population sent delegates

2. The Conference reflected the five sponsors’ dissatisfaction with what they regarded as a reluctance by the Western powers to consult with them on decisions affecting Asia

3. The Conference was concerned over tension between the People’s Republic of China and the United States Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q 54. Who among the following archaeologists was the first to identify similarities between a pre-Harappan culture and the mature Harappan culture ?

(a) Amalananda Ghosh

(b) Rakhaldas Banerji

(d) Sir John Marshall

Q 55. Which one of the following is the common element between the Kailasanatha Temple at Ellora and the Shore Temple at Mamallapuram ?

(a) Both are examples of Nagara architecture

(b) Both are carved out from solid rocks

(d) Both were built under the patronage of Pallava Kings

Q 56. Which of the following is / are not depicted in the Rajput paintings?

1. The stories of Krishna

2. Ragas and Raginis

3. The deeds of Hamza

4. The deeds of Babur Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2, 3 and 4

(d) 4 only

Q 57. Which one of the Five Year Plans had a high priority to bring inflation under control and to achieve stability in the economic situation ?

(a) Fourth Plan (1969-74)

(b) Fifth Plan (1974-79)

(d) Seventh Plan (1985-90)

Q 58. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true with respect to Phillips Curve ?

1. It shows the trade-off between unemployment and inflation

2. The downward sloping curve of Phillips Curve is generally held to be valid only in the short run

3. In the long run, Phillips Curve is usually thought to be horizontal at the non-accelerating inflation rate of unemployment (NAIRU)

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q 59. Which one of the following nations is not a member of the Eurasian Economic Union ?

(a) Belarus

(b) Russia

(d) Uzbekistan

Q 60. BRICS leaders signed the agreement to establish a New Development Bank at the summit held in :

(a) New Delhi, India (2012)

(b) Durban, South Africa (2013)

(d) Ufa, Russia (2015)

Q 61. Shishu, Kishor and Tarun are the schemes bf:

(a) Regional Rural Banks.

(b) Micro Units Development & Refinance Agency Ltd. (MUDRA).

(d) Industrial Development Bank of India.

Q 62. Consider the following statements :

1. The President of India shall have the power to appoint and remove the Speaker of Lok Sabha

2. The Speaker has to discharge the functions of his office himself throughout his term and cannot delegate his functions to the Deputy Speaker during his absence from the station or during his illness

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q 63. The Second Administrative Reforms Commission (2005) was concerned with :

(a) reforms in institutional arrangements for good governance

(b) reforms in the Indian Penal Code and the Criminal Justice System

(d) devising new measures for urban governance and management

Q 64. As per the Constitution of India, the Writ of Prohibition relates to an order :

1. issued against judicial and quasi judicial authority

2. to prohibit an inferior Court from proceeding in a particular case where it has no jurisdiction to try

3. to restrain a person from holding a public office to which he is not entitled

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q 65. Which one among the following was not an attribute of Samudragupta described in Prayag Prashasti?

(a) Sharp and polished intellect

(b) Accomplished sculptor

(d) Poetical talent of a genius

Q 66. Kamandaka’s Nitisara is a contribution to :

(a) Logic and Philosophy

(b) Mathematics

(d) Grammar

Q 67. The Lilavati of Bhaskara is a standard text on:

(a) Mathematics

(b) Surgery

(d) Linguistics

Q 68. Which of the following statement(s) are true with respect to the concept of ‘EFFICIENCY’ as used in mainstream economics?

1. Efficiency occurs when no possible reorganisation of production can make anyone better off without making someone else worse off

2. An economy is clearly inefficient if it is inside the Production Possibility Frontier (PPF)

3. At a minimum, an efficient economy is on its Production Possibility Frontier (PPF)

4. The terms such as ‘Pareto Efficiency’, Pareto Optimality’ and ‘Allocative Efficiency’ are all essentially one and the same which denote ‘efficiency in resource allocation’

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 4 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q 69. The first summit of the Forum for India Pacific Islands Cooperation (FIPIC) was held in :

(a) Jaipur

(b) Suva

(d) Port Moresby

Q 70. Which one of the following island nations went for Parliamentary elections in the month of August 2015 ?

(a) Maldives

(b) Fiji

(d) Singapore

Q 71. Which one of the following nations has faced a severe economic crisis in the year 2015 resulting in default in repayment of IMF loan?

(a) China

(b) Greece

(d) Belgium

Q 72. Who among the following Prime Ministers of India were defeated by a vote of No Confidence ?

1. Morarji Desai

2. Viswanath Pratap Singh

3. H.D. Deve Gowda

4. Atal Bihari Vajpayee

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(b) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 and 4 only

Q 73. Which of the following statements regarding Rajya Sabha is / are correct?

1. The maximum permissible strength of Rajya Sabha is 250

2. In Rajya Sabha, 238 members are elected indirectly from the States and Union Territories

3. It shares legislative powers equally with Lok Sabha in matters such as creation of All India Services

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 1 only

Q 74. Which of the following statements relating to the office of the President of India are correct?

1. The President has the power to grant pardon to a criminal in special cases

2. The President can promulgate ordinances even when the Parliament is in session

3. The President can dissolve the Rajya Sabha during emergency

4. The President has the power to nominate two members in the Lok Sabha from the Anglo Indian community

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 1 and 4 only

(d) 1, 3 and 4

Q 75. The followers of Gorakhnath were called :

(a) Jogis

(b) Nath-Panthis

(d) Sanyasis

Q 76. What were the 12 states of the Sikh confederacy called ?

(a) Misl

(b) Gurmata

(d) Rakhi

Q 77. Which of the statements given below is / are correct ?

1. The ideal of a common civil code is set forth in Article 44 of the Constitution of India

2. In certain respects, the High Courts in India have been given more extensive powers than the Supreme Court

3. The Supreme Court of India, the first fully independent Court for the country, was set up under the Constitution of India in 1950

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 3 only

Q 78. Which of the following is / are the example(s) of Transfer Payment(s)?

1. Unemployment Allowance

2. Payment of Salary

3. Social Security Payments

4. Old age Pension

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) None of the above

Q 79. The Erawan shrine, which witnessed a major bomb blast in August 2015, is located at :

(a) Singapore

(b) Bangkok

(d) Kabul

Q 80. Who among the following is the first Indian sportsperson to reach the finals in the World Badminton Championship (Women) in 2015?

(a) Jwala Gutta

(b) Saina Nehwal

(d) Madhumita Bisht

Q 81. Which one of the following Articles / Schedules in the Constitution of India deals with Autonomous District Councils ?

(a) Eighth Schedule

(b) Article 370

(d) Article 250

Q 82. Which of the following statements with regard to UID / Aadhar Card are correct?

1. It is a 12 digit unique form of identification for all residents of India

2. It is an identity number along with the biometric information of the individuals

3. It is a national identity and citizenship card

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 2 and 3 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q 83. Which of the following statements about the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) are correct?

1. The CAG will hold office for a period of six years from the date he assumes the office. He shall vacate office on attaining the age of 65 years, if earlier than the expiry of the 6 year term

2. The powers of CAG are derived from the Constitution of India

3. The CAG is a multi-member body appointed by the President of India in consultation with the Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers

4. The CAG may be removed by the President only on an address from both Houses of Parliament, on the grounds of proved misbehavior or incapacity Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1, 2 and 4

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 1 and 2 only

Q 84. Human Development Report for each year at global level is published by :

(a) WTO

(b) World Bank

(d) IMF

Q 85. Which one among the following statements about the coins of the Gupta rulers is correct?

(a) The obverse and reverse, both, had only the king’s portrait and date

(b) The obverse and reverse, both, had only an image of a deity and date

(d) The obverse generally had king’s portrait and reverse always had a date

Q 86. The agrahara in early India was:

(a) the name of a village or land granted to Brahmins

(b) the garland of flowers of Agar

(d) land or village settled by Vaishya farmers

Q 87. Which of the following statements relating to the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 are correct?

1. The Act recognizes forest rights of forest dwelling Scheduled Tribes who have been occupying the forest land before October 25, 1980

2. The onus of implementation of the Act lies at the level of the State / UT Governments

3. The Act seeks to recognize and vest certain forest rights in the forest dwelling Scheduled Tribes and other traditional forest dwellers Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q 88. Leander Paes won the US Open Mixed Doubles Tennis Title (2015) partnering with :

(a) Kristina Mladenovic

(b) Flavia Pennetta

(d) Sania Mirza

Q 89. Who among the following is the winner of the World Food Prize (year 2015)?

(a) Sanjaya Rajaram

(b) Baldev Singh Dhillon

(d) Rajendra Singh Paroda

Q 90. In which one of the following judgments of the Constitutional Bench of the Supreme Court of India, the ‘rarest of rare principle in the award of death penalty was first laid down?

(a) Bachan Singh v. State of Punjab (1980)

(b) Gopalanachari v. State of Kerala (1980)

(d) Tukaram v. State of Maharashtra (1979)

Q 91. Consider the following statements about the President of India:

1. The President has the right to address and send message to the Council of Ministers to elicit specific information

2. The President can call for information relating to proposals for legislation

3. All decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to administration of the Union must be communicated to the President Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q 92. In which one of the following cases, the Constitutional validity of the Muslim Women (Protection of Rights of Divorce) Act 1986, was upheld by the Supreme Court of India ?

(a) Muhammad Ahmed Khan v. Shah Bano Begum

(b) Danial Latifi v. Union of India

(d) Shankari Prasad v. Union of India

Q 93. Which of the following statements about the Vijayanagara Empire is / are true?

1. The kings claimed to rule on behalf of the God Virupaksha

2. Rulers used the title “Hindu Suratrana” to indicate their close links with Gods

3. All royal orders were signed in Kannada, Sanskrit and Tamil

4. Royal portrait sculpture was now displayed in temples Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 4 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 4

Q 94. Iqta in medieval India meant:

(a) land assigned to religious personnel for spiritual purposes

(b) land revenue from different territorial units assigned to army officers

(d) the rights of the zamindar

Q 95. Which one of the following books was not illustrated with paintings in Akbar’s court?

(a) Hamzanama

(b) Razmnama

(d) Tarikh-i-Alfi

Q 96. Which of the following is not a ‘Public Good’?

(a) Electricity

(b) National Defence

(d) Public Parks

Q 97. Which one of the following is not among the aims of the Second Five Year Plan (1956-57 to 1960-61) ?

(a) Rapid industrialization with particular emphasis on the development of basic and heavy industries

(b) Large expansion of employment opportunities

(c) Achieve self-sufficiency in food grains and increase agricultural production to meet the requirements of industry and exports

(d) Reduction of inequalities in income and wealth and a more even distribution of economic power

Q 98. The National Policy for Children, 2013 recognizes every person as a child below the age of:

(a) 12 years

(b) 14 years

(d) 18 years

Q 99. Which one of the following is not a monitorable target of the Beti Bachao Beti Padhao Abhiyan?

(a) Provide girls’ toilet in every school in 100 Child Sex Ratio (CSR) districts by the year 2017 )

(b) 100 percent girls’ enrolment in secondary education by the year 2020

(c) Promote a protective environment for girl children through implementation of Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO)Act, 2012

(d) Train Elected Representatives / Grassroot functionaries as Community Champions to mobilize communities to improve CSR and promote girl’s education

Q 100. Which one of the following is not an objective of the Rashtriya Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan (RUSA)?

(a) Improve the overall quality of private educational institutions

(b) Ensure reforms in the affiliation, academic and examination systems

(d) Create an enabling atmosphere in the higher educational institutions to devote themselves to research and innovations

Q 101. Which of the following statements with regard to preventive detention in India is / are correct ?

1. The detenue has no rights other than those mentioned in clauses (4) and (5) of Article 22 of Constitution of India

2. The detenue has a right to challenge the detention order on the ground that he was already in jail when the detention order was passed

3. The detenue can claim bail on the ground that he has been in prison beyond twenty-four hours without an order of the magistrate

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q 102. A Member of Lok Sabha does not become disqualified to continue as a Member of the House if the Member :

(a) voluntarily gives up his / her membership of the political party from which he/she was elected

(b) is expelled by the political party from which he / she had been elected to the House

(d) abstains from voting contrary to the direction by his/her political party

Q 103. Which one of the following languages is not recognized in the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution of India ?

(a) English

(b) Sanskrit

(d) Nepali

Q 104. Which kingdom did the temple of Hazara Rama belong to ?

(a) Avadh

(b) Travancore

(d) Ahom

Q 105. Consider the following statements about votive inscriptions in the second century BC:

1. They record gifts made to religious institutions

2. They tell us about the idea of transference of the meritorious results of the action of one person to another person

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q 106. Consider the following statements :

1. Abhinavagupta wrote a comprehensive treatise called the Tantraloka which systematically presents the teachings of the Kula and Trika systems

2. The Samaraichchakaha by Haribhadra Suri written in Gujarat around the eighth century is technically not a tantric work but is saturated with tantric ideas and practices Which of the statements given above is / are correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q 107. Which of the following is/are example(s) of ‘Near Money’ ?

1. Treasury Bill

2. Credit Card

3. Savings accounts and small time deposits

4. Retail money market mutual funds Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 1, 3 and 4

Q 108. Which one of the following terms is used in Economics to denote a technique for avoiding a risk by making a counteracting transaction ?

(a) Dumping

(b) Hedging

(d) Deflating

Q 109. ‘Citizenfour’, the 87th Academy Award winner in the category of documentary feature, is based on the life of:

(a) Abraham Lincoln

(b) Albert Einstein

(d) Laura Poitras

Q 110. Which one of the following is not a thrust area in the Railway Budget 2015-16 ?

(a) Online booking of disposable bed rolls

(b) Defence Travel System to eliminate Warrants

(d) Bio-toilets

Q 111. Which one of the following services of India Post has permanently been discontinued ?

(a) Money Order

(b) Telegram

(d) Inland Letter

Q 112. The category of ‘Overseas Citizens of India’ was entered in the Citizenship Act of India through an amendment in the year :

(a) 1986

(b) 1992

(d) 2003

Q 113. The Right to Education was added to the Fundamental Rights in the Constitution of India through the :

(a) Constitution (86th Amendment) Act, 2002

(b) Constitution (93rd Amendment) Act, 2005

(d) Constitution (97th Amendment) Act, 2011

Q 114. Consider the following statements :

1. The inscriptions on the pillar at Rummindei give vivid details of Ashoka’s Dhamma 2. The Nigalisagar inscription records the fact of Ashoka having visited the Konagamana stupa

Which of the statements given above is / are correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q 115. Consider the following statements :

1. The province of Assam was created in the year 1911

2. Eleven districts comprising Assam were separated from the Lieutenant Governorship of Bengal and established as an independent administration under a Chief Commissioner in the year 1874 Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(a) l only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q 116. Which of the following statements is / are true ?

1. Faxian’s Gaoseng Faxian Zhuan was the earliest first-hand Chinese account of Buddhist sites and practices in India

2. Faxian was only 25 years old at the time of writing the text

3. Faxian’s main aim in coming to India was to obtain and take back texts containing monastic rules

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2 only

(d) 3 only

Q 117. Which of the following statements are correct?

1. Ability to pay principle of taxation holds that the amount of taxes people pay should relate to their income or wealth

2. The Benefit Principle of taxation states that individuals should be taxed in proportion to the benefit they receive from Government programmes

3. A progressive tax takes a larger share of tax from poor families than it does from rich families

4. Indirect taxes have the advantage of being cheaper and easier to collect Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q 118. Which of the following statement(s) is /are false?

1. Wage Boards are tripartite in nature, with representatives from workers, employers and independent members

2. Except for the Wage Boards for Journalists and Non-Journalists, all the other wage boards are statutory in nature

3. Second National Commission on Labour has recommended against the utility of wage boards

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) I only

(b) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q 119. The rank of Major General in Indian Army is equivalent to :

(a) Air Marshal in Indian Air Force

(b) Rear Admiral in Indian Navy

(d) Commodore in Indian Navy

Q 120. Among the currently operational Indian Satellites, there is no

(a) Communication satellite

(b) Navigation satellite

(d) Jupiter orbiter satellite

CDS(I) Exam 2016 English Previous Year Paper

CDS(I) 2016 English

SENTENCE IMPROVEMENT

Directions for the following 20 (twenty) items :

Look at the underlined part of each sentence. Below each sentence are given three possible substitutions for the underlined part. If one of them (a), (b) or (c) is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b) or (c). If none of the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet. Thus a “No improvement” response will be signified by the letter (d).

Q 1. The police accused him for theft.

(a) with

(b) in

(d) No improvement

Q 2. He wanted that I left immediately.

(a) I may leave

(b) me to leave

(d) No improvement

Q 3. This is to certify that I know Mr. J. Mathews since 1970.

(a) am knowing

(b) had known

(d) No improvement

Q 4. They took away everything that belonged to him.

(a) that had been belonging

(b) that belong

(d) No improvement

Q 5. It was the mother of the girl of whose voice I had recognised.

(a) whose voice

(b) the voice of who

(d) No improvement

Q 6. The Executive Council is consisted of ten members

(a) consists of

(b) comprises of

(d) No improvement.

Q 7.The maid was laying the table for dinner.

(a) setting up

(b) lying

(d) No improvement

Q 8. We have so arranged the matters and one of us is always on duty.

(a) that one of us

(b) so that one of us

(d) No improvement

Q 9. Hardly have we got into the forest when it began to rain.

(a) Hardly we got

(b) We had hardly got

(d) No improvement

Q 10. Each time he felt tired he lied down.

(a) lies

(b) lays

(d) No improvement

Q 11. Though it was raining, but I went out.

(a) but yet I

(b) 1

(d) No improvement

Q 12. There is no chance of success unless you do not work hard.

(a) unless you work

(b) until your working

(d) No improvement

Q 13. She has grown too old to do little work.

(a) some

(b) any

(d) No improvement

Q 14. No one enjoys to deceive his family.

(a) deceiving

(b) for deceiving

(d) No improvement

Q 15. Have you ever saw the flower of a pumpkin plant?

(a) see

(b) seeing

(d) No improvement

Q 16. It is an ancient, historical place and it once belongs to the Pandavas.

(a) belonged

(b) belonging

(d) No improvement

Q 17. Since we were knowing the correct route, we did not worry at all.

(a) knew

(b) have known

(d) No improvement

Q 18. Our country can progress when only people work hard.

(a) when people only work hard

(b) when people work hard only

(d) No improvement

Q 19. Wake me up when father will come.

(a) comes

(b) will have come

(d) No improvement

Q 20. Do take an umbrella with you lest you do not get wet.

(a) lest you should get wet

(b) lest you should not get wet

(d) No improvement

ORDERING OF WORDS IN A SENTENCE

Directions for the following 15 (fifteen) items :

Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

Q 21. that it would affect the investigation process (P) / they refused (Q)/ of these raids saying (R)/ to divulge the venues(S)

The proper sequence should be

(a) PQRS

(b) SRPQ

(d) RPQS

Q 22. that he already has (P) / buying things (Q) / that rich man (R) / goes on (S)

The proper sequence should be

(a) PSQR

(b) RSQP

(d) RPQS

Q 23. the police commissioner rushed (P) / the crowd (Q) / to control (R) / the police force (S)

The proper sequence should be

(a) QRSP

(b) PQRS

(d) RSPQ

Q 24. my brother (P) / to attend his friend’s wedding (Q) / is going to Chennai (R) / tomorrow (S)

The proper sequence should be

(a) PSQR

(b) QPSR

(d) PRSQ

Q 25. quickly (P) / he gave orders (Q) / to catch the thief (R) / to his men (S)

The proper sequence should be

(a) SPRQ

(b) QSRP

(d) RSPP

Q 26. to give a definition(P) / if I were (Q) / I would begin (R) / like this (S)

The proper sequence should be

(a) QPRS

(b) PQRS

(d) RSPQ

Q 27. deserve all honour in society (P) / in doing their job well (Q) / men of conscience who take pride (R) / whatever its nature (S)

The proper sequence should be

(a) RQSP

(b) QRPS

(d) SPQR

Q 28. while some live (P) / to eat and drink (Q) / many do not have enough (R) / in luxury (S)

The proper sequence should be

(a) PSRQ

(b) PRSQ

(d) RISP

Q 29. I believed then / that no matter (P) / one should always find some time for exercise (Q) / and I believe even now (R) / the amount of work one has (S)

The proper sequence should be

(a) PROS

(b) PSRQ

(d) RPSQ

Q 30. I wonder (P) / whenever I decide to go to the cinema (Q) / with my scooter (R) / why I always have trouble (S)

The proper sequence should be

(a) QSPR

(b) QRSP

(d) PRSO

Q 31. The bird-catcher / by means of snares (P) / knew all the birds of the forest (Q) / by the hundred (R) / and was accustomed to capturing the winged creatures (S)

The proper sequence should be

(a) QPSR

(b) QSRP

(d) PROS

Q 32. Man is / a biological being (P) / his physical and material needs (Q) / confined to (R) / not merely

The proper sequence should be

(a) RSPQ

(b) SRP

(d) SPRQ

Q 33. A gang of robbers / while they were fast asleep (P) / entered the village (Q) / and stole the property of the villagers (R) / at night (S)

The proper sequence should be

(a) QSRP

(b) SQPR

(d) QPSR

Q 34. The opposition members (P) / the ruling of the Speaker (Q) / to protest against (R) /of the Parliament. (S) / walked out

The proper sequence should be

(a) SPQR

(b) QRPS

(d) SRQP

Q 35. When / (P) / a boy saved her (P) / by a speeding car (R) / at the risk of his life (S) /a little girl was about to be run over

The proper sequence should be

(a) SPRO

(b) RSQP

(d) QPSR

ORDERING OF SENTENCES

Directions for the following 10 (ten) items :

In the following items each passage consists of six sentences. The first and the sixth sentence are given in the beginning as Sl and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are labelled P, Q, R and S. You are required to find out the proper sequence of the four sentences and mark your response accordingly on the Answer Sheet.

Q 36. S1 : Once upon a time there was a king who had a wonderfully nice garden.

S6: In the trees lived a nightingale that sang so sweetly that all who passed by stood still and listened.

P : In the middle of the garden there was a lovely forest with tall trees and deep lakes.

Q : In this garden were to be seen the most wonderful flowers with silver bells tied to them.

R: The garden was so large that even the gardener himself did not know where it began and where it ended.

S: These bells always sounded so that nobody should pass by without noticing the flowers.

The proper sequence should be

(a) QPRS

(b) SPQR

(d) QPSR

Q 37. S1 : One of the first things the learning of a new language teaches you is that language comes from the region of the unconscious.

S6: The test of how much you know is : how much can you say without having to think how you are going . : to say it ?

P: What is often meant by “thinking in a language” is really the ability to use it without thinking about it.

Q: We grown-up people have to filter it through our minds – a much more laborious process.

R: That is why children learn a new language so effortlessly: it comes straight from their instincts.

S : But we cannot say that we know a language, or know what we have studied of it, until we can use it instinctively.

The proper sequence should be

(a) SQRP

(b) RPSQ

(d) RQSP

Q 38. S1 : For seventeen years she led a sheltered life in the convent.

S6: Two years later she left the Loreto Convent where she had spent many happy and useful years.

P: Her heart went out to the people living there.

Q : In 1946 she asked for permission to work in the slums.

R: Then one day, while she was returning from an errand, she saw the slums of Calcutta.

S : She felt she had found her second vocation, her real calling.

The proper sequence should be

(a) PRSQ

(b) RPSQ

(d) QRPS

Q 39. SI : Good memory is so common that we regard a man who does not possess it as eccentric.

S6: She wheeled away the perambu lator, picturing to herself his terror when he would come out and find the baby gone.

P:I have heard of a father who, having offered to take the baby out in a perambulator, was tempted by the sunny morning to pause on his journey and slip into a public house for a glass of beer.

Q: A little later, his wife had to do some shopping which took her past the public house where to her horror, she discovered her sleeping baby.

R: Leaving the perambulator outside, he disappeared into the drink shop.

S : Indignant at her husband’s behaviour, she decided to teach him a lesson.

The proper sequence should be

(a) PQRS

(b) PRQS

(d) PQSR

Q 40. Sl : Human ways of life have steadily changed.

S6: Even if we try to do nothing, we cannot prevent change.

P: Ancient Egypt – Greece – the Roman Empire – the Dark Ages and the Middle Ages – the Renaissance – the age of modern science and of modern nations one has succeeded the other; the history has never stood still.

Q : About ten thousand years ago, man I lived entirely by hunting

R: A settled civilized life only began when agriculture was discovered.

S : From that time to this, civilization has always been changing.

The proper sequence should be

(a) QRSP

(b) QPSR

(d) PRSQ

Q 41. Sl : In our youth we are apt to think that applause and publicity constitute success.

S6: So let us be initiated into the mysteries of maturity and be taught how to resist and spurn the lure of hollow shows.

P : The man who values the applause more than his own effort has not outgrown his youth.

Q : It is our achievement or work which wins lasting rewards.

R : But these are only the trappings, the ephemeral illusions.

S : One should concentrate on one’s work knowing that applause will come unsought.

The proper sequence should be

(a) SRQP

(b) PSRQ

(d) RQPS

Q 42. S1: My office sent an urgent email asking me to return.

S6: It was evening before I could sit and write to my parents that I would be joining them soon.

P: I immediately replied requesting a few days of grace as I had to book the return passage, pack and attend sundry matters before winding up my establishment here.

Q : On the way, I went to the laundry and made sure I would get my clothes in time.

R : Then I rushed to the bank, collected all my money and made reserva tions for my return journey.

S : From the shop next to it, I bought a couple of trunks to dump my books and other odd articles so that I could send them away in advance.

The proper sequence should be

(a) PQRS

(b) PRQS

(d) PSRQ

Q 43. S1: Wordsworth knew the behaviour of owls in the night better than most of us know the ways of black birds in day time.

S6: His great poetry owes much to the night.

P : Out of school there were no restrictions on the hours he kept.

Q : No poet ever had happier school days.

R : He would skate by the light of the stars, snare woodcocks at dead of night, watch the sunrise after a long ramble.

S: Throughout life he was an inveterate walker by night.

The proper sequence should be

(a) Q P R S

(b) P SQR

(d) SQPR

Q 44. Sl : Science has already conferred an immense boon on mankind by the growth of medicine.

S6: The general death rate in 1948 (10.8) was the lowest ever recorded up to that date.

P : It has continued ever since and is still continuing

Q : In the eighteenth century people expected most of their children to die before they were grown up.

R : In 1920 the infant mortality rate in England and Wales was 80 per thousand; in 1948 it was 34 per thousand.

S : Improvement began at the start of the nineteenth century, chiefly owing to vaccination.

The proper sequence should be

(a) PQRS

(b) RPQS

(d) PRQS

Q 45. SI : The young traveller gazed out into the dismal country with a face of mingled repulsion and interest.

S6: He quickly restored it to his secret pocket.

P: At intervals he drew from his pocket a bulky letter to which he referred, and on the margins of which he scribbled some notes.

R : From the back of his waist he produced something which one would hardly have expected to find in the possession of so mild mannered a man.

Q : It was a navy revolver of the largest size.

S : As he turned it slantwise to the light, the glint upon the rims of the copper shells within the drum showed that it was fully loaded.

The proper sequence should be

(a) RPQS

(b) QSPR

(d) PQSR

FILL IN THE BLANK

Directions for the following 10 (ten) items :

Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space and four words are given after each sentence. Select whichever word you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Q 46. The mounting pressure was so over whelming that he ultimately to her _________ wish.

(a) yielded in

(b) gave in

(d) agreed in

Q 47. Authority _________ when it is not supported by the moral purity of its user.

(a) prevails

(b) entails

(d) waits

Q 48. In a developing country like India some industries will have to be brought within public_________ and control, for other wise rapid growth of the economy may be impossible.

(a) perspective

(b) hegemony

(d) ownership

Q 49. Gandhiji conceived of the idea of channelizing the powerful currents of the united mass movement so as to give the utmost impetus to the national for independence.

(a) struggle

(b) conflict

(d) march

Q 50. Because of his _________habits, he could not save much money.

(a) extravagant

(b) frugal

(d) bad

Q 51. Socrates was _________ of spreading discontent among young men of Athens and of trying to destroy their faith in the old gods.

(a) rebuked

(b) disparaged

(d) demonised

Q 52. The robbers fell _________ amongst themselves over the sharing of the loot.

(a) out

(b) through

(d) across

Q 54. Speeding and blocking are traffic offences which lead to _________ accidents.

(a) troublesome

(b) final

(d) gruesome

Q 53. A really sophisticated person would never be _________ enough to think that he is always right.

(a) reverent

(b) naive

(d) humble

Q 55. Creative people are often _________ with their own uniqueness.

(a) obsessed

(b) deranged

(d) dissatisfied

SELECTING WORDS

Directions for the following 20 (twenty) items :

In the following passage at certain points you are given a choice of three words marked (a), (b) and (c), one of which fits the meaning of the passage. Choose the best word out of the three. Mark the letter, viz., (a), (b) or (c), relating to this word on your Answer Sheet. Examples K and L have been solved for you.

The K was in the school in Simla. L was home sick.

K. (a) boy (b) horse (c) dog

L. (a) She (b) It (c) He

Explanation : Out of the list given in item K, only, ‘boy’ is the correct answer because usually, a boy, and not a horse or a dog, attends school. So ‘(a)’ is to be marked on the Answer Sheet for item K. A boy is usually referred to as “he’, so for item L, (c)’ is the correct answer. Notice that to solve the first item K you have to read the rest of the sentence and then see what fits best.

I was engaged in many activities and I wanted a proper reconciliation between my activity and thought. Thought without (56) is undeveloped thought. Action action without (57) is folly. Of course we (58) act on some impulse or (59) urge. If suddenly you throw (60) no brick at me and my (61) goes up in front to (62) myself, it is an automatic, (63) action and not a result (64) deliberate thought. Our living is (65) by a series of automatic (66) from morning till night. Anything (67) do outside that common range of (68) however, has to be (69) by some measure of thinking. (70) more action and thought are (71) and integrated, the more effective (72) become and the happier you (73). There will then be no (74) between a wish to do something and (75) to act.

Q 56. (a) wish (b) action (c) idea

Q 57. (a) thought (b) wish (c) idea

Q 58. (a) never (b) belatedly (c) sometimes

Q 59. (a) peaceful (b) uncontrollable (c) indisputable

Q 60. (a) no (b) an (c) a

Q 61. (a) hand (b) wrist (c) finger

Q 62. (a)stimulate myself it is an automatic (b)rescue (c)protect

Q 63. (a)uncontrollable action (b) instinctive(c)impulsive

Q 64. (a)to deliberate thought our living is (b) in (c)of

Q 65. (a)made by a series (b)conditioned (c)developed

Q 66. (a)thoughts from morning till night anything (b)actions (c)wishes

Q 67. (a)we do outside that (b) I (c) they

Q 68. (a)thoughts however has to be (b)ideas (c)actions

Q 69. (a)proceeded by some measure (b) preceded (c)followed

Q 70. (a)some more action and thought are (b) If (c) The

Q 71. (a)developed and integrated the (b) allied (c) hostile

Q 72. (a) they become and the happier you (b)thoughts (c)we

Q 73. (a)appear There will then (b) develop (c)grow

Q 74. (a) reconciliation become and the happier you (b) conflict (c)inflict

Q 75. (a)inability to act (b) probability (c)plausibility

SPOTTING ERRORS

Directions for the following 15 (fifteen) items :

Each question in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

Q 76. (a) This hardly won freedom /(b) should not be lost /(c) so soon/(d) No error.

Q 77.(a) I tried to meet the person /(b) whom you said /(c) was looking for me /(d) No error.

Q 78.(a) We looked after the thief, /(b) but he was nowhere /(c) to be found /(d) No error.

Q 79. (a) I hoped that the train /(b) will arrive on time, /(c) but it did not. /(d) No error.

Q 80.(a) Their all belongings /(b) were lost /(c)in the fire. /(d)No error.

Q 81.(a)He was in the temper /(b) and refused /(c)to discuss the matter again. /(d) No error.

Q 82.(a) The decorations in your house /(b)are similar /(c) to his house./(d) No error.

Q 83.(a) Despite of the increase in air fares, /(b) most people still prefer /(c) to travel by plane./(d) No error.

Q 84 .(a) He told the boys that /(b) bif they worked hard, /(c)they will surely passs. /(d) Noerror.

Q 85. (a) I shall write /(b) to you /(c) when I shall reach Chennai./(d)No error.

Q 86. (a) Neither of these two documents /(b)support your claim /(c)on the property./(d) No error.

Q 87.(a) He is school teacher, /(b)but all his sons /(c) are doctors. /(d)No error.

Q 88.(a) His grandfather /(b)had told to smoke /(c) was a bad habit. /(d) No error.

Q 89.(a) My book, which /(b)I gave it to you yesterday,/(c)is very interesting./(d) Noerror.

Q 90.(a) I am entirely agreeing with you, /(b)but I regret ,/(c) I can’t help you. /(d)No error.

COMPREHENSION

Directions for the 21 (twenty one) items which follow :

In this section you have six short passages. After each passage, you will find some questions based on the passage. First, read a passage and answer the questions based on it. You are required to select your answers based on the contents of the passage and opinion of the author only.

Passage 1

To avoid the various foolish opinions to which mankind is prone, no superhuman brain is required. A few simple rules will keep you, not from all errors, but from silly errors.

If the matter is one that can be settled by observation, make the observation yourself. Aristotle could have avoided the mistake of thinking that women have fewer teeth than men, by the simple device of asking Mrs. Aristotle to keep her mouth open while he counted. Thinking that you know, when in fact you do not, is a bad mistake to which we are all prone. I believe myself that hedgehogs eat black beetles, because I have been told that they do; but if I were writing a book on the habits of hedgehogs, I should not commit myself until I had seen one enjoying this diet. Aristotle, however, was less cautious. Ancient and medieval writers knew all about unicorns and salamanders; not one of them thought it necessary to avoid dogmatic statements about them because he had never seen one of them.

Q 91. The writer believes that

(a) most people could avoid making foolish mistakes if they were clever

(b) through observation we could avoid making many mistakes

(d) All errors are caused by our own error in thinking

Q 92. With reference to the passage, which one of the following is the correct statement ?

(a) Aristotle was able to avoid the mistake of thinking that women have fewer teeth than men

(b) Aristotle thought women have fewer teeth than men

(d) Aristotle may have thought that women have fewer teeth because he never had a wife

Q 93. The writer says that if he was writing a book on hedgehogs

(a) he would maintain that they eat black beetles because he had been told so

(b) he would first observe their eating habits

(d) he would make the statement that they ate black beetles and later verify it

Q 94. The writer is of the opinion that

(a) unicorns and salamanders were observed by ancient and medieval writers but were unknown to modern writers

(b) ancient and medieval writers wrote authoritatively about unicorns and salamanders though they had never seen them

(d) only those who had observed the habits of unicorns and salamanders wrote about them

Q 95. A ‘dogmatic statement’ in the context means a statement which is

(a) convincing

(b) proved

(d) doubtful

Passage 2

Since I had nothing better to do, I decided to go to the market to buy a few handkerchiefs, the old ones had done vanishing trick. On the way I met an old friend of mine and I took him to a nearby restaurant for tea and snacks. Afterwards I went to the shop and selected a dozen handkerchiefs. I pulled out my purse to make the payment, and discovered that it was empty; I then realized that it was not my purse, it was a different purse altogether. How that happened is still a source of wonder to me and I refuse to believe that it was the work of my good old friend, for it was his purse that I held in my hand.

Q 96. The man could not buy the handkerchiefs because

(a) he did not like the handkerchiefs

(b) his friend did not allow him to buy them

(d) he had no money in the purse

Q 97. When he tried to take out the purse, he discovered that

(a) it was not there

(b) it was lost

(d) it was his friend’s purse

Passage 3

A profound terror, increased still by the darkness, the silence and his waking images, froze his heart within him. He almost felt his hair stand on end, when by straining his eyes to their utmost, he perceived through the shadows two faint yellow lights. At first he attributed these lights to the reflection of his own pupils, but soon the vivid brilliance of the night aided him gradually to distinguish the objects around him in the cave, and he beheld a huge animal lying but two steps from him.

Q 98. The opening of the passage suggests that

(a) darkness, silence and waking images added to his already being in pro found terror

(b) a profound terror increased the waking images in his frozen heart

(d) a profound terror was caused in him by the silence and darkness of the night

Q 99. When he perceived through the shadows two faint lights,

(a) he experienced a great strain

(b) he felt his hair stand upright

(d) his pupils dilated

Q 100. The person in the story the person was frightened by darkness and silence

(a) imagined that he saw an animal

(b) could not recognize the animal

(d) expected to see the animal

Passage 4

We are tempted to assume that technological progress is real progress and that material success is the criterion of civilization. If the Eastern people become fascinated by machines and techniques and use them, as Western nations do, to build huge industrial organizations and large military establishments, they will get involved in power politics and drift into the danger of death. Scientific and technological civilization brings great opportunities and great rewards but also great risks and temptations. Science and technology are neither good nor bad. They are not to be tabooed but tamed and assigned their proper place. They become dangerous only if they become idols.

Q 101. According to the author, people think that real progress lies in

(a) material success and technological growth

(b) imitating Western nations

(d) taking risks and facing temptations

Q 102. According to the author, science and technology should be

(a) tabooed and eliminated from life

(b) used in a controlled and careful manner

(d) made compulsory in education

Q 103. From the passage one gathers that the Eastern people must

(a) appreciate scientific achievements

(b) build huge industrial organizations

(d) be fascinated by machines

Q 104. According to the author, science and technology are

(a) totally harmless

(b) extremely dangerous

(d) useful, if they are not worshipped blindly

Passage 5

It is not luck but labour that makes men. Luck, says an American writer, is ever waiting for something to turn up; labour with keen eyes and strong will always turns up something. Luck lies in bed and wishes the postman would bring him news of a legacy; labour turns out at six and with busy pen and ringing hammer lays the foundation of competence. Luck whines, labour watches. Luck relies on chance; labour on character. Luck slips downwards to self-indulgence; labour strides upwards and aspires to independence. The conviction, therefore, is extending that diligence is the mother of good luck; in other words, that a man’s success in life will be proportionate to his efforts, to his industry, to his attention to small things.

Q 105. Which one of the following statements sums up the meaning of the passage ?

(a) Luck waits without exertion but labour exerts without waiting

(b) Luck waits and complains without working while labour achieves success although it complains

(d) Luck is self-indulgent but labour is selfless

Q 106. Which one of the following statements is true about the passage ?

(a) Luck is necessary for success

(b) Success depends on hard work and attention to details

(d) Success is exactly proportionate to hard work only

Q 107.“ ___________labour turns out at six and with busy pen and ringing hammer lays the foundation of competence.” This statement means

(a) hard work of all kinds makes people efficient and skilled

(b) the labour lays the foundation of the building

(d) there is no worker who works so hard as the labourer who begins his day at six in the morning

Passage 6

The avowed purpose of the exact sciences is to establish complete intellectual control over experience in terms of precise rules which can be formally set out and empirically tested. Could that ideal be fully achieved, all truth and all error could henceforth be ascribed to an exact theory of the universe, while we who accept this theory would be relieved of any occasion for exercising our personal judgement. We should only have to follow the rules faithfully. Classical mechanics approaches this ideal so closely that it is often thought to have achieved it. But this leaves out of account the element of personal judgement involved in applying the formulae of mechanics to the facts of experience.

Q 108. The purpose of the exact sciences is to

(a) form opinions about our experience

(b) formulate principles which will help us to exercise our personal judgement

(d) make formal and testable rules which can help verify experience

Q 109. An exact theory of the universe is

(a) not desirable

(b) improbable

(d) yet to be made

Q 110. In exact sciences

(a) personal judgements are set aside in favour of a mechanical theory

(b) one does not find answers to all questions and problems

(d) one interprets the universe according to one’s wish

Q 111. Classical mechanics

(a) has formulated precise rules based on experience Cape

(b) has gained intellectual control over the world

(d) just falls short of achieving intel lectual control over experience

SYNONYMS

Directions for the following 9 (nine) items :

Each item in this section consists of a word in capital letters followed by four words or groups of words. Select the word or groups of words that is most similar in meaning to the word in capital letters.

Q 112. AMBIGUOUS

(a) contrasting

(b) connivance

(d) wilful

Q 113. ELUCIDATE

(a) clarify

(b) calculate

(d) update

Q 114. MONOTONOUS

(a) dreary

(b) dreadful

(d) monologue

Q 115. KINDLE

(a) make fun of

(b) excite

(d) kind-hearted

Q 116. PALATIAL

(a) very clean

(b) very special

(d) magnificent

Q 117. TACTFUL

(a) diplomatic

(b) indifferent

(d) deceitful

Q 118. VORACIOUS

(a) very bad

(b) insatiable

(d) malicious

Q 119. STRICTURE

(a) strictness

(b) stinging

(d) censure

Q 120. OBEISANCE

(a) homage

(b) pilgrimage

(d) obligation

CTET July 2019 Paper-II Previous Year Paper

CTET JULY 2019 PAPER II

PART – I

CHILD DEVELOPMENT AND PEDAGOGY

Directions : Answer the following questions (Q. Nos. 1 to 30) by selecting the correct/most appropriate options.

Q 1. Read the following description and identify the stage of moral reasoning of Kohlberg.

Description : Right action is defined by self-chosen ethical principles of conscience that are valid for all humanity, regardless of law and social agreement.

(1) The instrumental purpose orientation

(2) The social – contract orientation

(3) The social – order maintaining orientation

(4) The universal ethical principle orientation

Q 2. One of the major accomplishments of concrete operational stage is

(1) Animistic thinking

(2) Ability to conserve

(3) Hypothetico – deductive reasoning

(4) Secondary circular reactions

Q 3. Constructivists such as Jean Piaget and Lev Vygotsky view learning as

(1) acquisition of skills

(2) conditioning of responses

(3) passive repetitive process

(4) process of meaning-making by active engagement

Q 4. Selecting and presenting stories and clippings from newspaper that portray both men and women in non traditional roles is an effective strategy to

(1) promote gender bias

(2) promote gender constancy

(3) encourage stereotypical gender roles

(4) counter gender stereotypes

Q 5. Which of the following play an important role in a child’s socialization ?

(i) Media

(ii) School

(iii) Family

(iv) Neighbourhood

(1) (iii), (i)

(2) (ii), (iii)

(3) (i), (iii), (iv)

(4) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

Q 6. As per Howard Gardner’s theory of multiple intelligence, how would the intelligence of a person with the following characteristics be categorized ?

Characteristics :

“Ability to detect and respond appropriately to the moods, temperaments, motivations and, intentions of others.”

(1) Naturalistic

(2) Intrapersonal

(3) Interpersonal

(4) Therapeutic

Q 7. Which of the following should be the reasons for assessment of children ?

(i) To separate and label children into ‘non-achievers’, ‘low achievers’, ‘average’ and ‘high achievers’.

(ii) To improve teaching-learning processes in the classroom.

(iii) To find out what changes and progress in learning that takes place in the child over a period of time.

(iv) To discuss the capabilities, potential, strengths and challenging areas of the child with the parents.

(1) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

(2) (i), (ii), (iii)

(3) (ii), (iii), (iv)

(4) (ii), (iv)

Q 8. Which of the following is central to the concept of progressive education ?

(1) Textbook centric learning

(2) Belief in the capability and potential of every child

(3) Standard instruction and assessment

(4) Extrinsic motivation and uniform assessment parameters

Q 9. To understand individual differences in development it is important

(1) to look at the inherited characteristics that give each person a special start in life.

(2) to look at the environmental factors that affect individuals.

(3) to consider maturation of the body and the brain.

(4) to consider both inherited characteristics as well as environmental factors and their interplay.

Q 10. Which of the following is not a principle of development ?

(1) Individuals develop at different rates.

(2) Development is relatively orderly.

(3) Development takes place gradually over a period of time.

(4) Exact course and nature of development is determined at the time of birth itself.

Q 11. Several research studies show that teachers have more overall interaction with boys than girls. What is the correct explanation for this ?

(1) Boys have much more academic capabilities than girls.

(2) Boys need more attention than girls.

(3) This is an example of gender bias in teaching.

(4) Boys are easier to manage than girls in the classroom.

Q 12. The ability to come up with original and divergent solutions to a problem is a primary characteristic of

(1) Egocentric children

(2) Impaired children

(3) Creative children

(4) Children with learning disability

Q 13. What instructional adaptations should a teacher make while working with students who are ‘Visually Challenged’ ?

(1) Speak clearly and use a lot of touch and feel materials.

(2) Use a variety of visual presentations.

(3) Orient herself so that the students can watch her closely.

(4) Focus on a variety of written tasks especially worksheets.

Q 14. Co-operative learning and peer tutoring _________ in an inclusive classroom.

(1) should be actively promoted

(2) should be actively discouraged

(3) should be occasionally used

(4) should not be used

Q 15. Which of the following is most important in an inclusive classroom ?

(1) Uniform instruction

(2) Standardized testing

(3) Promoting competitive learning

(4) Individualized education plan

Q 16. Which of the following is a correctly matched pair of learners and their primary characteristics ?

(1) Hearing impaired learners – Cannot comprehend visual information

(2) ‘Dyslexic’ learners – Lack reading and writing fluency

(3) Creative learners – Hyperactive; slow in completing work

(4) Attention deficit learners – High motivation; can sustain attention for long periods of time.

Q 17. Which of the following does not result in meaningful facilitation of learning ?

(1) Connecting new knowledge to pre-existing knowledge

(2) Promoting repetition and recall

(3) Use of examples and non examples

(4) Encouraging multiple ways of looking at a problem

Q 18. Which of the following would not be consistent with a constructivist environment ?

(1) Students are given frequent opportunities to engage in complex, meaningful, problem based activities.

(2) Students work collaboratively and are given support to engage in task-oriented dialogue with each other.

(3) Teachers elicit students’ ideas and experiences in relationship to key topics and plant teaching-learning to elaborate or restructure their current knowledge.

(4) Teachers employ specific end of the term assessment strategies and give feedback on products rather than processes.

Q 19. A teacher should encourage students to set _______________ rather than ______________.

(1) learning goals; performance goals

(2) performance goals; learning goals

(3) failure avoiding goals; marks seeking goals

(4) marks seeking goals; failure avoiding goals

Q 20. Which of the following are examples of effective learning strategies ?

(i) Setting goals and time tables

(ii) Making organizational charts and concept maps

(iii) Thinking of examples and non examples

(iv) Explaining to a peer

(v) Self-questioning

(1) (i), (ii), (iii)

(2) (i), (iv), (v)

(3) (i), (ii), (iii), (v)

(4) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v)

Q 21. Which of these is an example of extrinsic motivation ?

(1) “I enjoy doing my homework because it is so much fun.”

(2) “I learn so much when I do my homework.”

(3) “Doing homework makes me understand my concepts better.”

(4) “I complete my homework because the teacher gives us marks for each assignment.”

Q 22. In a primary classroom a teacher should

(1) give only examples

(2) give only non-examples

(3) give both examples and non examples

(4) not give any examples and non examples

Q 23. Which of the following strategies would promote meaning-making in children ?

(1) Exploration and discussion

(2) Transmission of information

(3) Using punitive measures

(4) Uniform and standardized testing

Q 24. Children’s errors and misconceptions –

(1) are a significant step in the teaching-learning process.

(2) are a hindrance and obstacle to the teaching-learning process.

(3) should be ignored in the teaching learning process.

(4) signify that children’s capabilities are far inferior than that of adults.

Q 25. In the constructivist frame child is viewed as

(1) ‘miniature adult’ who is less than adult in all aspects such as size, cognition, emotions.

(2) ‘tabula rasa’ or ‘blank slate’ whose life is shaped entirely by experience.

(3) a ‘passive being’ who can be shaped and molded into any form through conditioning.

(4) a ‘problem solver’ and a ‘scientific investigator’.

Q 26. A teacher’s role while using co operative learning in her class –

(1) is to be a silent spectator and let children do what they want.

(2) is to leave the class and let children work on their own.

(3) is to be supportive and monitor each group.

(4) is to support the group which has the ‘bright’ and ‘talented’ children.

Q 27. Which of the following statements denotes the relationship between development and learning correctly ?

(1) Development and learning are not related.

(2) Learning takes place irrespective of development.

(3) Rate of learning far exceeds the rate of development.

(4) Development and learning are interrelated and interdependent.

Q 28. According to Piaget, specific psychological structures (organized ways of making sense of experience) are called

(1) mental tools

(2) schemes

(3) images

(4) mental maps

Q 29. “With an appropriate question / suggestion, the child’s understanding can be extended far beyond the point which she could have reached alone.” Which construct does the above statement highlight ?

(1) Zone of proximal development

(2) Equilibration

(3) Conservation

(4) Intelligence

Q 30. According to Lev Vygotsky, basic mental capacities are transformed into higher cognitive processes primarily through

(1) rewards and punishment

(2) social interaction

(3) stimulus-response association

(4) adaptation and organization

IMPORTANT : Candidates have to do questions 31 to 90 EITHER from Part – II (Mathematics and Science) OR from Part – III (Social Studies / Social Science).

PART – II

MATHEMATICS AND SCIENCE

Directions : Answer the following questions by selecting the correct/most appropriate options.

Q 31. If x = 2³× 3²× 5³× 7³

y = 2²× 3³× 5⁴× 7³, and

z = 2⁴× 3⁴× 5²× 7⁵,

then H.C.F. of x, y and z is

(1) (30)²× 7³

(2) (15)³× 7⁴

(3) (30)³× 7³

(4) 30 × 7⁵

Q 32. If 52272 = p²× q³× r⁴, where p, q and r are prime numbers, then the value of (2p + q – r) is

(1) 21

(2) 22

(3) 23

(4) 29

Q 33. If the 7-digit number 134x58y is divisible by 72, then the value of (2x + y) is

(1) 6

(2) 7

(3) 8

(4) 9

Q 34. Which of the following is not a Pythagorean triplet ?

(1) 7, 24, 25

(2) 8, 15, 17

(3) 11, 60, 63

(4) 13, 84, 85

Q 35. The measure of an angle for which the measure of the supplement is four times the measure of the complement is

(1) 30⁰

(2) 45⁰

(3) 60⁰

(4) 75⁰

Q 36. If the angles, in degrees, of a triangle are x, 3x + 20 and 6x, the triangle must be

(1) Obtuse

(2) Acute

(3) Right

(4) Isosceles

Q 37. In triangles ABC and DEF, ∠C = ∠F, AC = DF, and BC = EF. If AB = 2x – 1 and DE = 5x – 4, then the value of x is

(1) 1

(2) 2

(3) 3

(4) 4

Q 38. One side of a triangle is 5 cm and the other side is 10 cm and its perimeter is P cm, where P is an integer. The least and the greatest possible values of P are respectively

(1) 19 and 29

(2) 20 and 28

(3) 21 and 29

(4) 22 and 27

Q 39. Let x be the median of the data 13, 8, 15, 14, 17, 9, 14, 16, 13, 17, 14, 15, 16, 15, 14.

If 8 is replaced by 18, then the median of the data is y. What is the sum of the values of x and y ?

(1) 27

(2) 28

(3) 29

(4) 30

Q 40. A bag contains 3 white, 2 blue and 5 red balls. One ball is drawn at random from the bag. What is the probability that the ball drawn is not red ?

(1) ⅘

(2) 3/10

(3) ⅕

(4) ½

Q 41. The total surface area of a cuboid is 194 m². If its length is 8 m and breadth is 6 m, then what is its volume (in m²) ?

(1) 112

(2) 126

(3) 168

(4) 224

Q 42. The area of a trapezium is 105 cm² and its height is 7 cm. If one of the parallel sides is longer than the other by 6 cm, then the length of the longer side, in cm, is

(1) 18

(2) 16

(3) 15

(4) 12

Q 43. The curved surface area of a right circular cylinder of base radius 3 cm is 94.2 cm². The volume (in cm³) of the cylinder is (Take π = 3.14)

(1) 138.6

(2) 141.3

(3) 125.6

(4) 113.04

Q 44. If x is added to each of 14, 12, 34 and 30, the numbers so obtained, in this order, are in proportion. What is the value of √12x + 9 ?

(1) 8

(2) 9

(3) 11

(4) 13

Q 45. Which one of the following statements is true ?

(1) A regular hexagon has only 4 lines of symmetry.

(2) A regular polygon of 10 sides has 10 lines of symmetry.

(3) A circle has no line of symmetry.

(4) An angle has two lines of symmetry.

Q 46. The value of x which satisfies the equation

10(x + 6) + 8(x – 3) = 5(5x – 4) also satisfies the equation

(1) 5(x – 3) = x + 5

(2) 3(3x – 5) = 2x + 1

(3) 2(x + 3) = 5(x – 5) + 4

(4) 5(x – 5) = 2(x – 3) + 5

Q 47. What should be subtracted from 5y – 13x – 8a to obtain 11x – 16y + 7a ?

(1) 6x + 21y + 15a

(2) 21y – 5x – a

(3) 21y – 24x – 15a

(4) 24x – 21y + a

Q 48. Which of the following statements is correct regarding children coming to school from rural areas in the context of Mathematics ?

(1) They need not learn formal mathematics as it is of no use to them.

(2) They may have rich oral mathematical traditions and knowledge.

(3) They do not know any mathematics.

(4) They have poor communication skills in mathematics.

Q 49. Read the following statements :

A. Axioms are propositions which are assumed.

B. Axioms are special theorems.

C. Axioms are definitions.

D. Axioms, when proved becomes theorems.

Which of the following statement(s) is correct ?

(1) A and C

(2) A and D

(3) Only B

(4) Only A

Q 50. Which of the following statements does not reflect contemporary view of students errors in mathematics ?

(1) They should be overlooked.

(2) They are a part of learning.

(3) They are a rich source of information.

(4) They can guide the teacher in planning her classes.

Q 51. Which of the following statement(s) regarding Mathematics is true ?

A. Mathematics is a tool.

B. Mathematics is a form of art.

C. Mathematics is a language.

(1) A & B

(2) B & C

(3) only A

(4) A, B & C

Q 52. To prove that √2 is an irrational number, a teacher begins by assuming that it is a rational number and then proceeds to show how this assumption is not feasible. This is an example of proof by

(1) Induction

(2) Deduction

(3) Contradiction

(4) Verification

Q 53. Which of the following statements reflects a desirable assessment practice in the context of mathematics learning ?

(1) Only paper-pencil tasks are suited to assess students because they require precise answers.

(2) Holding conversations and one to one discussion with children can also be helpful in assessing them.

(3) Assessment should be product oriented and focus on the right answer of the child.

(4) Incorrect answers of children should largely be ignored because we need to focus on children’s strengths.

Q 54. Which of the following statements is true of learning mathematics ?

(1) Everyone can learn and succeed in mathematics.

(2) Girls need extra attention because they are weaker in mathematics.

(3) Mathematics is a specialized subject meant for a select few.

(4) Informal algorithms are inferior to formal mathematics.

Q 55. The role of proportional reasoning in understanding the concept related to ratio and proportion was highlighted by

(1) Van Hiele

(2) Zoltan Dienes

(3) Jean Piaget

(4) Lev Vygotsky

Q 56. A student is not able to solve those word problems which involve transposition in algebra. The best remedial strategy is to

(1) give lot of practise questions on transposition of numbers.

(2) give lot of practise questions of word problems in another language.

(3) explain him/her word problem in simple language.

(4) explain concept of equality using alternate method.

Q 57. Contemporary understanding of Mathematics Pedagogy encourages teachers to do all of the following, except :

(1) Encourage the ability to approximate solutions.

(2) Introduce computation of problems before development of conceptual understanding.

(3) Create opportunities for students to guess-and-verify the solutions to problems.

(4) Develop the skill of systematic reasoning in students.

Q 58. The value of [(–4) + 2] × (–3) – (–3) [(–3) × (–7) – 8] +(4) [(– 48) + 6] is

(1) 9

(2) –11

(3) 13

(4) –16

Q 59. The fractions 44/49 , 33/38, 22/25,and 24/29 are written in descending order as

(1) 24/29, 33/38, 22/25, 44/49

(2) 22/25, 24/29, 33/38, 44/49

(3) 44/49, 22/25, 33/38, 24/29

(4) 44/49, 33/38, 24/29, 22/25

Q 60. Which one of the following statements is not true for integers ?

(1) Multiplication is associative.

(2) Division is commutative.

(3) 1 is the multiplicative identity.

(4) Subtraction is not commutative.

Directions : Answer the following questions by selecting the correct/most appropriate options.

Q 61. Myra cycles to a friend’s house 5 km away to deliver a packet. She goes at a speed of 12 km/hour and returns at a speed of 8 km/h. Her average speed during the whole trip is –

(1) 20 km/h

(2) 9.6 km/h

(3) 10 km/h

(4) 5 m/s

Q 62. Which of the following sets contains only the units of measuring distance ?(1) metre, light year, hertz

(2) cubit, year, light year

(3) cubit, metre, light year

(4) metre, hertz, cubit

Q 63. Sameer rolls his marble on three different surfaces spread out on floor – taut cellophane sheet, carpet and newspaper. The force of friction acting on the marble in the increasing order is

(1) Newspaper, Cellophane sheet, Carpet

(2) Newspaper, Carpet, Cellophane sheet

(3) Cellophane sheet, Newspaper, Carpet

(4) Cellophane sheet, Carpet, Newspaper

Q 64. An object is moving linearly with a uniform velocity. If time is represented along X-axis then which of the following statements is correct ?

(1) The distance-time graph of the motion will be a straight line parallel to X-axis.

(2) The velocity-time graph of the motion will be a straight line parallel to Y-axis.

(3) The distance-time graph of the motion will be a straight line parallel to Y-axis.

(4) The velocity-time graph of the motion will be a straight line parallel to X-axis.

Q 65. Which of the following is not a byproduct of petroleum ?

(1) Paraffin wax

(2) Coke

(3) Bitumen

(4) Lubricating oil

Q 66. Aman keeps a plastic bottle, a wooden spoon and a metallic spoon in a closed room overnight. The room temperature is 30^OC. In the morning he records the temperatures of the three objects as T₁, T₂ and T₃. Which of the following most likely represents the relation between them ?

(1) T₁ = T₂ = T₃

(2) T₃ > T₂ > T₁

(3) T₁ = T₂ < T₃

(4) T₁ > T₂ > T₃

Q 67. Which of the following organisms can prepare their own food by Photosynthesis ?

(1) Algae

(2) Fungi

(3) Rhizobium

(4) Virus

Q 68. Which of the following features help polar bears adapt in extreme cold conditions ?

(1) white fur, flat feet, fat under skin

(2) white fur, long curved sharp claws, fat under skin

(3) white fur, flat feet, layers of fur

(4) strong smell, flat feet, layers of fur

Q 69. Which of the following nutrients are present in milk ?

(1) Protein, Calcium, Vitamin D

(2) Protein, Vitamin C, Vitamin A

(3) Carbohydrates, Vitamin C, Iron

(4) Protein, Iron, Vitamin D

Q 70. The non-metal used in the purple coloured solution applied on wounds as antiseptic is

(1) Chlorine

(2) Iodine

(3) Bromine

(4) Sulphur

Q 71. Which of the following statements regarding ‘Air’ is incorrect ?

(1) Air has weight.

(2) Air is not present in soil.

(3) Air plays important role in water cycle.

(4) Air occupies space.

Q 72. Which of the following represents correct matching of the organs of digestive system in Column A with the function in Column B ?

Column A	Column B
a. Liver	i. where protein digestion starts
b. Stomach	ii. where bile juice is stored
c. Gall bladder	iii. releases digestive juice into small intestine
d. Pancreas	iv. largest gland

	a	b	c	d
(1)	i	ii	iv	iii
(2)	iv	i	ii	iii
(3)	i	iii	ii	iv
(4)	iii	iv	ii	i

Q 73. Which of the following statement about cells is true ?

(1) All cells are round in shape.

(2) Cells of a tissue have similar structure.

(3) Size of cells is same in a well organized organism.

(4) All the cells have nucleus.

Q 74. Which of the following are correctly matched with their mode of reproduction ?

A	B
a. Yeast	i. vegetative propagation
b. Potato	ii. spore formation
c. Algae	iii. fragmentation
d. Fungi	iv. budding

	a	b	c	d
(1)	iv	i	iii	ii
(2)	i	iii	ii	iv
(3)	ii	iv	iii	i
(4)	iii	ii	iv	i

Q 75. Which of the following pollutants are responsible for depletion of ozone layer ?

(1) Carbon dioxide and carbon monoxide

(2) Chlorofluoro carbons

(3) Acid rain

(4) Methane and carbon dioxide

Q 76. Which of the following set represents communicable diseases ?

(1) Anaemia, Scurvy, Diarrhoea, Cholera

(2) Typhoid, Malaria, Anaemia, Swine flu

(3) Typhoid, Swine flu, Malaria, Polio

(4) Diabetes, Typhoid, Malaria, Anaemia

Q 77. Which one of the following is not true of the nature of science ?

A. Science is always tentative.

B. Science promotes scepticism.

C. Science is a process of constructing knowledge.

D. Science is static in nature.

(1) D

(2) B

(3) C

(4) A

Q 78. Which of the following is/are developed by Science ?

A. Equity

B. Scientific attitude

C. Scientific temper

D. Static mind set

(1) A and D

(2) B, C and D

(3) A, B and C

(4) C and D

Q 79. The role of a science teacher should be to _________

(1) provide rich variety of learning experiences to learners.

(2) provide product based teaching learning environment to learners.

(3) guide learners to practice the memorization of the creative ideas.

(4) encourage all learners to frame questions of high cognitive abilities.

Q 80. As per NCF-2005, good science education should be

A. True to the learner

B. True to the environment of the learner

C. True to the teacher

D. True to science

(1) A, B and D

(2) B and C only

(3) A, B and C

(4) D only

Q 81. “Conducting a survey on the awareness of people about sources of air pollution in learners localities.”

Which of the following cognitive process will be most associated with the above learning objective having action verb conducting ?

(1) Remembering

(2) Understanding

(3) Creating

(4) Applying

Q 82. Which of the following strategy can be the most appropriate for involving learners in the teaching learning of science ?

(1) Reading a science book

(2) Clarifying the hard spots of learners

(3) Working on engaging the learners first

(4) Encouraging learners to do group assessment

Q 83. By which of the following strategy meaningful clarification on the concept of reflection of light can be given ?

(1) Animated video on the concept.

(2) Chart showing the reflection of light.

(3) Observing reflection of light on white paper screen by the learners and drawing conclusions.

(4) Asking closed ended questions related to the concept.

Q 84. Why are field visits important in science ?

(1) It provides hands on experiences to the learners.

(2) It is easy to conduct.

(3) It collects the information of science.

(4) It develops habit of hardwork among learners.

Q 85. Which of the following tool is for learner centered assessment ?

A. Portfolio

B. Concept mapping

C. Paper-pencil test

D. Journal writing

(1) C only

(2) A, B and D

(3) A and C only

(4) B, C and D

Q 86. Assessment as learning in Science means _________.

(1) Formative assessment

(2) Summative assessment

(3) Self assessment

(4) Term assessment

Q 87. Amrita is trying to set-up an electric circuit. She runs short of connecting wires. Which of the following materials can she use to complete the circuit ?

(1) thick thread

(2) steel wire

(3) glass rod

(4) rubber pipe

Q 88. Identify the correct statement.

(1) A concave mirror always forms an erect image.

(2) A concave mirror forms an erect as well as inverted image.

(3) A convex mirror always forms an inverted image.

(4) A convex mirror forms erect as well as inverted image.

Q 89. Which of the following acids is found in ant’s sting ?

(1) Ascorbic acid

(2) Formic acid

(3) Oxalic acid

(4) Acetic acid

Q 90. 3.7 kg of a fuel is completely burnt to give off 1.665  10⁸ joules of energy. The calorific value of the fuel in standard unit is

(1) 45000

(2) 22222

(3) 61605

(4) 25000

IMPORTANT : Candidates have to do Question Nos. 31 to 90 EITHER from Part – II (Mathematics and Science) OR from Part – III (Social Studies / Social Science).

PART – III

SOCIAL STUDIES / SOCIAL SCIENCE

Directions : Answer the following questions by selecting the correct/most appropriate options.

Q 31. Which of the following was not a feature to Athenian democracy ?

(1) All the free men and women above 30 years of age were recognised as full citizens.

(2) All citizens were expected to serve in army and navy.

(3) All the citizens attended assemblies that were held for deciding upon matters.

(4) Appointment for many positions were made through lottery.

Q 32. Which of the following was Samudragupta’s policy specifically towards the rulers of Dakshinapatha ?

(1) Their kingdoms were uprooted and made a part of Samudragupta’s empire.

(2) They submitted to Samudragupta and offered daughters in marriage.

(3) They brought tribute, followed his orders and attended his court.

(4) They surrendered after being defeated and then were allowed to rule again.

Q 33. Match the following :

(Art form)	(Nomenclature)
a. Art technique that enabled making of images that looked real.	i. Picturesque
b. Painting showing Indian landscape as quaint, unexplored land	ii. Portraiture
c. Paintings displaying lavish lifestyles, wealth & status of Europeans in India.	iii. History Painting
d. Paintings depicting scenes from British imperial history & victories.	iv. Oil Painting

	a	b	c	d
(1)	iv	i	ii	iii
(2)	iii	iv	i	ii
(3)	ii	iii	iv	i
(4)	i	ii	iii	iv

Q 34. In the late 18^th century, the presidencies of Bombay, Madras and Bengal developed from which of the following East India Company’s trading posts ?

(1) Surat, Madras, Calcutta

(2) Nagpur, Madurai, Delhi

(3) Pune, Madras, Calcutta

(4) Surat, Madurai, Delhi

Q 35. Consider the statements (A) and (B) about Mahayana Buddhism and choose the correct answer.

(A) In this form of Buddhism, Buddha’s presence in sculptures was shown using certain signs.

(B) The belief in Bodhisattvas emerged with the coming of Mahayana Buddhism.

(1) (A) is true, (B) is false.

(2) (A) is false, (B) is true.

(3) Both (A) and (B) are true.

(4) Both (A) and (B) are false.

Q 36. Consider the statements (A) and (B) about Mahalwari and Ryotwari system of revenues and choose the correct answer.

(A) The Mahalwari was devised for North-Western provinces of Bengal presidency, while the Ryotwari was devised for British territories in South.

(B) While in Mahalwari, village headman collected and paid revenue of the whole village to the company, in Ryotwari direct settlements was made with cultivators.

(1) Only (A) correctly explains differences between the two revenue systems.

(2) Only (B) correctly explains differences between the two revenue systems.

(3) Both (A) and (B) correctly explain differences between the two revenue systems.

(4) Neither (A) nor (B) correctly explain differences between the two revenue systems.

Q 37. A tomb of a Sufi saint is known as :

(1) Khanqah

(2) Idgah

(3) Gulfaroshan

(4) Dargah

Q 38. The doctrine of Vishishtadvaita was propounded in eleventh century by :

(1) Ramanuja

(2) Basavanna

(3) Eknath

(4) Sakhubai

Q 39. Consider the statements (A) and (B) on Diwani Adalat established in 1772 in India and choose the correct answer :

(A) It was a criminal court.

(B) It was presided over by the European district collectors.

(1) (A) is true, (B) is false.

(2) (A) is false, (B) is true.

(3) Both (A) and (B) are true.

(4) Both (A) and (B) are false.

Q 40. A garisson town refers to :

(1) Land adjacent to a city that supplies goods to it.

(2) A fortified settlement with soldiers.

(3) A place where goods from different production centres are sold.

(4) A town on an important trading port.

Q 41. Assertion (A) : It will be 7:30 p.m. in India, when it is 2:00 p.m. in London. Reason (R) : India is located east of Greenwich at 82º30′E.

Select the correct option from the given alternatives.

(1) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(2) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

(3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(4) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).

Q 42. Consider the statements A, B, C on time zone and choose the correct answer :

A. Some countries have a great longitudinal extent and so they adopted more than one standard time.

B. The earth has been divided into twenty-four time zones of one hour each.

C. Each time zone covers 15º of longitude.

(1) A and B are correct and C is incorrect.

(2) A and C are correct and B is incorrect.

(3) B and C are correct and A is incorrect.

(4) A, B, C all are correct.

Q 43. Choose the correct arrangement of atmosphere’s layers beginning from earth’s surface :

(1) Stratosphere, Mesosphere, Thermosphere, Exosphere, Troposphere

(2) Troposphere, Stratosphere, Mesosphere, Thermosphere, Exosphere

(3) Exosphere, Stratosphere, Mesosphere, Troposphere, Thermosphere.

(4) Mesosphere, Troposphere, Exosphere, Stratosphere, Thermosphere

Q 44. Seasons occur due to which of the following reasons ?

(1) Axis of the Earth makes an angle of 66½º with its orbital plane.

(2) Tropic of Capricorn receives direct rays of the sun, falling vertically at 23½º S.

(3) Revolution of the Earth and inclination of its axis in the same direction.

(4) Circle of illumination caused due to rotation of the earth around its axis.

Q 45. The major constituents of earth’s atmosphere by percentage is :

(1) Oxygen

(2) Carbon dioxide

(3) Nitrogen

(4) Helium

Q 46. Which of the following statements about ocean currents is/are correct ?

A. The cold currents carry water from polar or higher latitudes to tropical or lower latitudes.

B. Labrador is a warm current.

C. Areas where warm and cold currents meet provide world’s best fishing grounds.

(1) A and B are correct.

(2) A and C are correct.

(3) B and C are correct.

(4) Only A is correct.

Q 47. The depositional feature of a glacier is called :

(1) Sea cave

(2) Moraine

(3) Loess

(4) Levees

Q 48. Statements A and B describe the features of which of the following vegetations ?

A. This vegetation is found in the higher latitudes (50º – 70º) of Northern Hemisphere.

B. It is also called as Taiga.

(1) Temperate Grasslands.

(2) Temperate Deciduous Forests.

(3) Coniferous Forests.

(4) Mediterranean Vegetation.

Q 49. Which of the following is not a feature of the Ganga-Brahmaputra Basin ?

(1) Ox-Bow lakes dot the plain area.

(2) The density of population of plain area is very high.

(3) The delta area is covered with Mangrove forests.

(4) Slash and Burn agriculture is practiced in this area for land cultivation.

Q 50. Swimmers can float in Dead sea because :

(1) Winds blow at a very high speed over the surface of sea water.

(2) More warm currents than cold currents originate in the sea.

(3) The sea experiences more high tides than low tides.

(4) The increased salt content makes the sea dense.

Q 51. Consider the statements A and B about land use and choose the correct answer :

A. Land use refers to use of land exclusively for agriculture and forestry.

B. Land use is primarily determined by its topography.

(1) A is true and B is false.

(2) A is false and B is true.

(3) Both A and B are true.

(4) Both A and B are false.

Q 52. Shelter belts help in :

(1) Checking wind movement to protect soil cover.

(2) Retaining soil moisture.

(3) Slowing down the flow of water over soil.

(4) Preventing gullies and hence further soil loss.

Q 53. What determines the thickness of soil profile ?

(1) Relief

(2) Time

(3) Flora-Fauna

(4) Climate

Q 54. On the basis of their distribution, resources can be classified as :

(1) Actual and Potential resources

(2) Renewable and Non-renewable resources

(3) Biotic and Abiotic resources

(4) Ubiquitous and Localised resources

Q 55. Which of the following statements about a ‘diverse society’ is correct ?

(1) It would have differences and inequalities in language, religion and culture.

(2) It would have differences in culture and power.

(3) It would have similarities of language, religion and culture.

(4) It would have differences and similarities in language, culture and religion.

Q 56. Which of the following statements challenges gender stereotypes ?

(1) Women are very emotional.

(2) Women are fashion conscious.

(3) Women are responsible bus drivers.

(4) Women are nurturing.

Q 57. Which of the following composed the main demand of the suffragettes ?

(1) Right to vote for women.

(2) Right to bureaucratic roles for women.

(3) Adult franchise for propertied women.

(4) Adult franchise for working class.

Q 58. Which of the following statements about Jatakas is correct ?

(1) These were composed by ordinary people, written down and preserved by Buddhist monks.

(2) These were composed by ordinary people, written down and preserved by Jaina monks.

(3) These were composed by Buddhist monks, written down and preserved by ordinary people.

(4) These were composed by Jaina monks, written down and preserved by ordinary people.

Q 59. Which of the following statements about Ain-i-Akbari is correct ?

(1) It is the first volume of the three volume history of Akbar’s reign titled Akbar Nama.

(2) It deals with Akbar’s ancestors and records the events of Akbar’s reign.

(3) It was written by Mirza Hakim, who was one of Akbar’s courtiers.

(4) It has rich statistical details about diverse aspects of Akbar’s administration.

Q 60. Who among the following compiled the compositions of Baba Guru Nanak in Gurumukhi, also adding his own compositions to it ?

(1) Guru Gobind Singh

(2) Guru Angad

(3) Guru Arjan

(4) Guru Teg Bahadur

Q 61. Consider List – A and List – B. List – A has different types of rural employment.

List – B has different kinds of loans taken.

List – A	List – B
a. Agricultural worker	i. Health and off season consumption
b. Largefarmer	ii. Fertiliser, Pesticide, Seeds
c. Middle farmer	iii. Government loan for agro-processing plant

Match items of List – A with List – B, based on most likely reason for loans :

a b c

(1) i ii iii

(2) ii i iii

(3) i iii ii

(4) iii i ii

Q 62. Which of the following forms the trading arrangement between a weaver and a merchant under the “Putting out” system ? Choose the correct option.

(1) Yarn is bought for the lowest bid from merchant; and cloth is sold at highest bid.

(2) Yarn is sold to the weaver by the merchant; and weaver makes cloth for self-consumption.

(3) Yarn is supplied by the merchant to the weaver and cloth produced is bought back from weaver at a low price.

(4) Yarn is bought by weaver from the open market and cloth is sold to merchant at a low price.

Q 63. Consider the statements A to E. They form jumbled links in a chain of market, wherein ‘Ketchup’ reaches a consumer.

A. Sona orders ketchup from a neighbourhood shop.

B. Farmer buys tomato seeds from a local trader.

C. Wholesale merchant bids for tomatoes in the vegetable mandi.

D. A small city based food processing unit buys tomatoes.

E. Marketing company supplies ketchup to stores.

Choose the option that represents the correct sequence in the chain of market :

(1) B, C, D, E, A

(2) B, D, E, C, A

(3) C, B, D, E, A

(4) A, B, D, C, E

Q 64. According to Appellate System, a person dissatisfied with the verdict given by the Court of the District Judge could appeal to which of the following courts ?

(1) Session Court

(2) Supreme Court

(3) High Court

(4) Trial Court

Q 65. Consider the statements A and B on the Indian Parliament :

A. A political party that has any number of Members of

Parliament in the Lok Sabha can form a government.

B. Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and President are part of the Parliament.

Choose the correct option :

(1) Only A is true.

(2) Only B is true.

(3) Both A and B are true.

(4) Both A and B are false.

Q 66. Read the statement given below : “The Indian State has many checks and balances to prevent the misuse of powers.”

Choose the correct option that represents the meaning of ‘Indian State’ in the above statement.

(1) The Indian Central Government

(2) The Indian Bureaucracy

(3) Any State Government

(4) The Indian Political System

Q 67. Which of the following should the teaching of History focus upon ?

A. Concepts of plural representations and building a sense of historical diversity.

B. Encouraging students to imagine living in the past and relate to the experiences.

(1) Only A

(2) Only B

(3) Both A and B

(4) Neither A nor B

Q 68. Two of the statements given below are false. Identify these statements.

A. Natural and physical basis of scientific inquiry can be used in Social Science also.

B. The teaching of Social Science has the responsibility towards value education only.

C. The same methodology can be used to teach different disciplines of Social Science.

D. The teaching of Social Science concerns more with involvement with complexities rather than information.

(1) A and C

(2) B and C

(3) B and D

(4) C and D

Q 69. A Social Science teacher should aim towards :

(1) Rote memorisation

(2) Building perspective

(3) Syllabus completion

(4) Passing the examinations

Q 70. Which of the following approaches have been considered while developing social and political life textbooks ?

A. Learning through use of concrete examples and experiences.

B. Learning through retention based on facts and data.

(1) Only A

(2) Only B

(3) Both A and B

(4) Neither A nor B

Q 71. Which of the following is true about Social Science ?

A. Memorising information will lead to conceptual development.

B. The status of a ‘fact’ is always fixed.

(1) Only A

(2) Only B

(3) Both A and B

(4) Neither A nor B

Q 72. The best practice for sensitising students towards wildlife conservation would be :

(1) Reading about relevant policies and laws.

(2) Preparing a play on wildlife conservation.

(3) Observing wildlife week at the school.

(4) Pledging not to buy animal based products.

Q 73. What is the main purpose of an Open Book Evaluation ?

(1) Students need not feel the burden to rote memorise all facts and details.

(2) Teachers need not undergo extra pressure to frame new questions.

(3) Students need not read extra books.

(4) Students can answer exactly according to the textbook.

Q 74. Which of the following would be the best closure tasks after the teaching of the theme ‘The Making of Regional Cultures’ ?

A. Small group projects

B. Dance performance by an expert

C. Quiz competition

D. Collage making

(1) A, B, C

(2) A, B, D

(3) A, C, D

(4) B, C, D

Q 75. Imagine you have inherited a kingdom. How would you make your kingdom stable and prosperous ?

In context of the above question, as a teacher which skill would you emphasise upon while assessing the students ?

(1) Comparing experiences.

(2) Ability to analyse.

(3) Infer and extrapolate from situation.

(4) Ability to reason.

Q 76. A respectful way to introduce the theme ‘Adivasis’ would be to :

(1) Portraying them as rich and powerful forest people.

(2) Showcasing their colourful costumes.

(3) Screening a tribal song and dance.

(4) Discussing their primitive and rustic pasts.

Q 77. While teaching controversial issues in Social Science class, you should :

(1) Completely avoid confrontations.

(2) Take them up occasionally and conduct brief discussions.

(3) Take them up with proper planning to initiate a dignified discussion.

(4) Keep in mind students’ background and discuss only non hurtful aspects.

Q 78. The teaching of social and political life should focus on :

A. Study of Political Institutions.

B. Study of Basic Principles.

(1) Only A

(2) Only B

(3) Both A and B

(4) Neither A nor B

Q 79. While planning a small group activity with students, which of the following should be emphasised ?

A. To create a challenging task.

B. To teach students to work together.

C. To select groups thoughtfully.

D. Completion of task.

(1) A, B, C

(2) A, B, D

(3) A, C, D

(4) B, C, D

Q 80. Which of the following statements are true about the study of Social Science ?

A. Helps in systemic analysis of issues.

B. Students will grow up and find out for themselves.

C. Focus should be on subject details rather than understanding.

D. Building sensitivity and curiosity as much as providing information.

(1) A, C

(2) A, D

(3) B, D

(4) C, D

Q 81. The writings of the following cannot be attributed as a primary source ?

(1) Muzaffar Alam

(2) Abul Fazl

(3) Rashsundari Devi

(4) Ziyauddin Barani

Q 82. Which of the following sources would be wrong to use if you have to introduce Ancient Indian History ?

(1) Cave paintings

(2) Miniature Paintings

(3) Inscriptions

(4) Manuscripts

Q 83. Which of the following can a Social Science teacher critically address while discussing the theme, ‘Advertisement’ ?

A. Appeal to the personal emotions.

B. Issues of equality.

(1) Only A

(2) Only B

(3) Neither A nor B

(4) Both A and B

Q 84. ‘Discuss few more reasons that are responsible for changes in land use pattern.’

In context of the above question, as a Social Science teacher you would be assessing students’ skill of :

(1) Classifying

(2) Generalising

(3) Inferring

(4) Hypothesising

Q 85. To familiarise students with the theme, ‘Natural Vegetation and Wildlife’, which would be the best pedagogical method ?

(1) Screening a documentary on the theme.

(2) Visit to a wildlife sanctuary.

(3) Inviting an expert for a lecture.

(4) Textbook reading and discussion.

Q 86. What is the role of cartoons in a Social Science textbooks ?

(1) No role as cartoons are immature.

(2) Mainly used as fillers so that textbooks look attractive.

(3) Makes class enjoyable as the subject is boring.

(4) Raises basic issues and makes it relatable to students.

Q 87. Consider statements A and B on the practice of apartheid :

A. It discriminates between races but allowed all the right to vote.

B. It prevents mingling of races but gives equitable public facilities to all.

Choose the correct option :

(1) Only A is true.

(2) Only B is true.

(3) Both A and B are true.

(4) Both A and B are false.

Q 88. Who among the following occupies elected office in a Gram Panchayat ?

A. Sarpanch

B. Ward Members

C. Secretary

D. Gram Sabha Member

Choose the correct option :

(1) A and B

(2) A and C

(3) A, B and C

(4) B, C and D

Q 89. Which of the following work is the responsibility of a ‘Patwari’ ?

(1) Construction and maintenance of common property.

(2) Executing employment schemes for land development.

(3) Preventing land disputes by investigating complaints.

(4) Measuring land and keeping records.

Q 90. Which of the following statements on the functioning of a local urban administration is correct ?

(1) Commissioner of a municipal corporation makes and decides the budget for the year.

(2) Commissioner is elected by ward councillors and reports to him/her.

(3) Ward councillors form committees to resolve issues of governance.

(4) Ward councillors are headed by the Sarpanch.

PART – IV

LANGUAGE – I

ENGLISH

IMPORTANT : Candidates should attempt questions from Part – IV (Q. No. 91-120), if they have opted for ENGLISH as LANGUAGE – I only.

Directions : Read the passage given below and answer the questions (91 – 99) that follow by selecting the correct/most appropriate options :

There’s an air of excitement on the platform as the train’s departure time draws close. You’ve found your name on the passenger’s list, together with the names of those in the compartment with you; so you already know your ‘fellow passengers’ names, ages, sex and destination. People are pushing past you to get on, as you show your coupon to the conductor and he tells you to board.

Your fellow passengers are settling in, staking out their claims to territory with too much luggage. A bell clangs but there is no slamming of carriage doors, no blowing of whistles and no shout of “All aboard !’’ as in the states. The train simply draws out of the station while people stroll alongside and with studied nonchalance, clamber on, one after the other through the still-open doors.

You claim your own seat, pleased to be on the move. Since you have a long journey ahead in the company of strangers, what happens next will govern your enjoyment of the trip. You can start up a conversation and make friends, allies quickly, or he anti-social and lonely for the whole of the journey. Of course, it depends on your personality but if you are travelling alone you’ll need an ally, someone you feel you can trust to watch your luggage when you go to the washroom. You can’t isolate yourself completely on a train so if that’s your style, train travel isn’t for you.

I get a thrill out of the start of every train journey. It’s not just the excitement of moving on to a new place, there’s the anticipation of what’s going to happen during the journey; the pleasure at the new acquaintances I’m going to make; the dissolving of city skyline into lush, rural landscape beyond the windows; and the heightened emotions of everyone on board. Indians love to travel by train; they are used to it and prepare properly so it becomes a picnic on wheels. I get excited when I am part of it, you will too.

Q 91. Even after the train has started moving why do some people stroll alongside ?

(1) They reached the platform late.

(2) They want to enjoy the outside scene.

(3) They enjoy getting into a moving train.

(4) The doors are still open.

Q 92. What can prevent you from enjoying your train trip ?

(1) There are strangers around you.

(2) You are lonely by temperament.

(3) You are worried about your luggage.

(4) The travellers around you don’t trust you.

Q 93. Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE ?

(1) The narrator enjoys going to a new place.

(2) He/she loves to make friends.

(3) He/she does not enjoy a picnic in the train.

(4) He/she is thrilled at the scene outside.

Q 94. What does the word ‘Coupon’ here mean ?

(1) a railways pass

(2) a passport

(3) a railway ticket

(4) a counterfoil

Q 95. The phrase, ‘draws out’ as used here means :

(1) clears out

(2) moves out

(3) hurries out

(4) breaks away

Q 96. Which part of speech is the underlined word in the following sentence ?

People are pushing past you.

(1) Preposition

(2) Adverb

(3) Adjective

(4) Verb

Q 97. Which part of the following sentence has an error in it ?

(a) “Once you have made this decision

(b)there would be

(d) Ram warned me

(1) (a)

(2) (b)

(3) (c)

(4) (d)

Q 98. You are well informed about your fellow passengers :

(1) even before you have entered the compartment.

(2) after you have been introduced to them.

(3) after you have interacted with them.

(4) When you have settled in your seats.

Q 99. Who stake a claim to territory in the compartment ?

(1) Those who need more space in it.

(2) Those whose seats are already occupied.

(3) Those who don’t travel light.

(4) Those who haven’t reserved seats.

Directions : Read the extract given below and answer the questions (100 – 105) by selecting the correct/most appropriate options :

The work of hunters is another thing : I have come after them and made repair Where they have left not one stone on a stone, But they would have the rabbit out of hiding, To please the yelping dogs. The gaps I mean, 5 No one has seen them made or heard them made, But at spring mending-time we find them there. I let my neighbour know beyond the hill; And on a day we meet to walk the line And set the wall between us once again. 10 We keep the wall between us as we go. To each the boulders that have fallen to each.

And some are loaves and some so nearly balls We have to use a spell to make them balance :

‘Stay where you are until our backs are turned !’

Q 100. The gaps in the wall are made by :

(1) rabbits

(2) dogs

(3) hunters

(4) nature

Q 101. The neighbours meet in the spring season to :

(1) fill the gaps in the wall.

(2) to go on a long walk.

(3) to find out who broke the wall.

(4) to lift the stones.

Q 102. The neighbours have to use a spell to :

(1) look for the rabbits.

(2) to count the number of stones.

(3) to make the stones obey them.

(4) to fix the irregular stones in the wall.

Q 103. The figure of speech used in the lines 9-10 is :

(1) Personification

(2) Metaphor

(3) Simile

(4) Irony

Q 104. Identify the figure of speech used in the expression :

‘And some are loaves and some so nearly balls’

(1) Simile

(2) Metaphor

(3) Personification

(4) Irony

Q 105. The hunters’ main aim is :

(1) to remove the stones.

(2) to please their dogs.

(3) to catch the rabbits.

(4) to make the neighbours build the wall again.

Answer the following questions (Q Nos. 106 to 120) by selecting the most appropriate option out of the given options.

Q 106. A teacher along with her learners writes the names of objects in the classroom (like door, black board, windows etc) in their mother tongue and in English on pieces of paper and pastes them on the objects for learners to notice the words. What is the teacher trying to do ?

(1) The teacher wants her learners to write well.

(2) The teacher is creating a (print) language rich environment in the classroom.

(3) The teacher is trying to teach letters of alphabet.

(4) The teacher is creating a situation for the students to learn the spelling of the words.

Q 107. This is assumed to be a major difference between language acquisition and learning.

(1) Language acquisition is natural and language learning is deliberate/instructed.

(2) Language acquisition happens at an early stage while language learning takes place later.

(3) Language acquisition always happens in mother tongue and language learning happens in the second language.

(4) Language acquisition is meaning formation and language learning is making meaning.

Q 108. LAC stands for

(1) Language Acquisition Culture

(2) Languages Across the Cultures

(3) Language Acquisition of Content

(4) Language Across the Curriculum

Q 109. Many minor and tribal languages are not available in school curriculum and the number of speakers is receding in those languages. What is this known as in socio educational linguistics ?

(1) Language death

(2) Language minority in education

(3) Language endangerment

(4) Language revival

Q 110. A teacher asks her learners to find words and word chunks relating to different themes based on the reading lesson. Learners in groups have to make word charts of the same category. What is this strategy known as ?

(1) Thematic language teaching

(2) Word collocations

(3) Communicative language teaching

(4) A writing project

Q 111. A student reads through an article in a newspaper to get the overall idea of the article. What is this (practice) known as ?

(1) Scanning

(2) Skimming

(3) Top-down model

(4) Bottom-up model

Q 112. Sight words are developed

(1) by seeing them on sight.

(2) by teachers from text books.

(3) by using words in meaningful contexts

(4) by knowing meanings of difficult words.

Q 113. Language is

(1) a rule governed system

(2) a structure formed system

(3) a formation of words, rules and meanings

(4) a human system which changes frequently

Q 114. ‘Comprehensible input’ as proposed by Krashen (1985) is

(1) enabling learners to comprehend ideas.

(2) exposing learners to language somewhat above their level.

(3) exposing learners to language below their level so that they can comprehend.

(4) enabling learners to read in many languages.

Q 115. Extensive reading is

(1) reading in detail every word and idea for deep understanding.

(2) reading for facts.

(3) reading to write.

(4) reading for pleasure and overall understanding of the text.

Q 116. A teacher keeps the students’ work of language use and uses it for assessing the learners’ achievement. What is this strategy for assessment known as ?

(1) Portfolio assessment

(2) Diagnostic test

(3) CCE

(4) Summative assessment

Q 117. A teacher brought real life objects like a hammer, a screw driver and so on to her class. She asked her learners to describe the objects in five to seven sentences. What are the materials in language teaching known as ?

(1) Teaching implements

(2) Tools

(3) Language input

(4) Realia

Q 118. Mother tongue based multilingualism advocates that

(1) all learners learn in mother tongue only in primary school.

(2) learners begin their schooling in mother tongue and move on to add many (at least two) languages in school.

(3) learners begin with their state language and more on to English medium.

(4) learners learn their mother tongue, Hindi and English from Class-I.

Q 119. Which of the following statements are true of teaching of grammar ?

A. Teaching of rules at the initial stage does not lend much to language learning.

B. Rules of grammar are essential during the formative years of language learning.

C. Grammar teaching should move from meaning to form.

D. Grammar teaching should move from form to meaning.

(1) Statements B and D are true.

(2) Statements C and B are true.

(3) Statements A and C are true.

(4) Statements A and D are true.

Q 120. A teacher draws the attention of learners to individual sounds, words and then sentences while teaching the listening skill. What approach to listening does the teacher adopt ?

(1) Top-down approach

(2) Elastic approach

(3) Communicative approach

(4) Bottom-up approach

PART – V

LANGUAGE – II

ENGLISH

IMPORTANT : Candidates should attempt questions from Part – V (Q. No. 121-150), if they have opted for ENGLISH as LANGUAGE – II only.

Directions : Read the passage given below and answer the questions (121 – 128) by selecting the correct/most appropriate options :

The other day I received an unusual and very gratifying gift : I was given a tree. Or rather, I was given half-a-dozen trees, which would be planted on my behalf. I had been invited to give a talk to an organisation. After such events, the speaker is usually given a token gift. Sometimes the gift is that of a pen, or something useful. Often, the gift is in the form of a plaque or similar commemorative token. However well-meant, such gifts are destined to gather dust in forgotten corners. Which is why I was agreeably surprised to be given a scroll which attested that, in a designated plantation established for the purpose, six tress would be added in my name, as part of ‘greenֹ’ movement being sponsored by the organization.

In an increasingly environmentally conscious world, the gift of a living tree or plant makes for a perfect present. The tradition of giving and receiving gifts has increasingly become a highly evolved marketing exercise. Apart from festivals like Diwali, Holi, Christmas, Eid and others, a whole new calendar of celebratory events has been created to promote the giving of gifts : Mother’s Day, Father’s Day, Teacher’s Day, Valentine’s Day and so on and on.

What do you give to people – friends, relatives, spouses, children, parents, employees, clients, well-wishers who have more or less everything, or at least everything that you could afford to give them as a gift ? Another shirt or kurta ? Another bottle of scent or after shave ? Another box of chocolates ? Another any other ?

Q 121. What usually happens to the gifts he/she receives ?

(1) He uses them if he needs them.

(2) He gives them away as gifts to others.

(3) They are put away and forgotten.

(4) He keeps them religiously as mementoes.

Q 122. The gift received by the writer was :

(1) a marketing exercise

(2) environment friendly

(3) very expensive

(4) gathering dust in a corner

Q 123. Why do you not very much care for it when you receive a shirt or a kurta as a gift ?

(1) The giver had to spend a lot of money.

(2) You already have so many of them.

(3) You don’t like the colour

(4) You were not asked about your choice.

Q 124. The word ‘gratifying’ means

(1) annoying

(2) satisfying

(3) giving

(4) fortifying

Q 125. The word ‘destined’ means :

(1) fated

(2) decided

(3) declined

(4) departed

Q 126. Name the part of speech of the underlined word in the following clause.

which is why I was agreeably surprised.

(1) Preposition

(2) Adjective

(3) Pronoun

(4) Adverb

Q 127. Identify the part of the following sentence which has an error in it.

(a) Your claim ought

(b) to succeed in that case

(d) will be substantial

(1) (a)

(2) (b)

(3) (c)

(4) (d)

Q 128. The writer was thrilled when he was given

(1) a tree

(2) six trees

(3) a plaque

(4) a pen

Directions : Read the passage given below and answer the questions (129 – 135) by selecting the correct/most appropriate options :

With more then 3,000 languages currently spoken, English undoubtedly is amongst the richest of all languages. The Oxford English Dictionary lists about half a million words of which only 2,00,000 are frequently used. This is because, the balance 3,00,000 words are technical and not found in ordinary dictionaries. The only language that can come near English is Chinese.

Apart from being the richest language, English also boasts of being one of the most widely spoken, second only to Mandarin Chinese. This remarkable achievement is only because of the one thing that we all love to do – copy ! ‘Siesta’ for example is of Spanish origin. ‘Sputnik’ as you must be aware of, has a Russian origin. ‘Restaurant’ is from France and ‘Super’ from Germany. Even before the birth of the ‘genius’ of ‘drama’, William Shakespeare, the words ‘genius’ and ‘drama’ were adapted from Greek. Now, you must be wondering if English has anything original about it. Well, find it out ! Did you ever try to find out how many different words of English we use in our daily life ? Try to guess and then read on. A modern novelist has a vocabulary of anywhere between ten to fifteen thousand words.

William Shakespeare used thirty thousand words and the only writer to come close to him was James Joyce in ‘Ulysses’. We normally have a vocabulary of about ten thousand words of which only five thousand are used in everyday conversation. This leads to a limited variety of words. This is because we repeat a lot of words. In conversation and in writing, it is ‘the’. (Try counting it in this article and you will have proof of it.)

Q 129. In our everyday conversation we use a limited number of words because :

(1) our vocabulary is unlimited.

(2) we are not a genius like Shakespeare.

(3) everybody is not highly educated.

(4) we repeat a lot of words.

Q 130. How many words are usually used by an English speaking person ?

(1) 3,000

(2) 5,000

(3) 10,000

(4) 15,000

Q 131. Which of the following words is most often used in English language ?

(1) a

(2) the

(3) is

(4) one

Q 132. The word that is similar in meaning to the word, ‘remarkable’ is :

(1) astonishing

(2) remedial

(3) remaining

(4) optional

Q 133. The word that is opposite in meaning to the word, ‘ordinary’ is :

(1) usual

(2) complex

(3) special

(4) liable

Q 134. Which part of speech is the underlined word in the following sentence ?

Did you ever try to find out ?

(1) Adverb

(2) Adjective

(3) Pronoun

(4) Verb

Q 135. English is the most widely used language in the world because :

(1) Shakespeare has written in English.

(2) it is the richest language.

(3) it has taken words from other languages.

(4) it has half a million words in it.

Answer the following questions (Q. Nos. 136 to 150) by selecting the most appropriate options.

Q 136. Continuous Assessment focuses on

(1) Formal assessment

(2) Informal assessment

(3) Informal and a combination of both formative and summative

(4) Outcome and achievement based assessment

Q 137. ‘Pre-reading’ activity in class is to

(1) connect learner’s previous knowledge with what she learns in the reading text.

(2) connect learners’ with one another.

(3) enable learners to know about the story which they would read ahead.

(4) All of these

Q 138. Pedagogical Grammar is

(1) grammar of pedagogy

(2) grammar for teachers

(3) grammar in context to connect grammar points with real life context

(4) grammar with formal rules to be applied while writing

Q 139. What are these words known as ? – the, of, and, a, to, that, it, with, but, they, she, he

(1) Sight words

(2) Form words

(3) Use words

(4) Unimportant words

Q 140. A teacher gives a puzzle to her class VIII students and asks them to solve it by speaking out how they solve it. What is this strategy known as ?

(1) Speaking aloud

(2) Think aloud protocol

(3) Listening

(4) Picture reading

Q 141. Sanskrit in India today is a

(1) Modern Indian language

(2) Modern Indian language and a classical language

(3) Religious language

(4) Hindu language

Q 142. A teacher of Class-VII asked her students to read a short story and come to the class. She asks them to discuss the major points of the story in groups and present them to the whole class. What is this reading known as ?

(1) Intensive reading

(2) Reading with a purpose

(3) Reading for thinking

(4) Extensive reading

Q 143. English does not find its place as a _________.

(1) first language in the school curriculum

(2) second language in the school curriculum

(3) third language in the school curriculum

(4) medium of instruction

Q 144. Bottom-up processing in listening is to

(1) decode messages moving from sounds to words, phrases, clauses and other grammatical elements to sentences.

(2) decode the overall messages of the discourse and move down the micro level units.

(3) encode all the sounds from speaker to listener.

(4) use multiple ways to decode the messages.

Q 145. What is the following strategy known as in reading ?

The text is read more slowly and in detail to get the gist or overall sense of the text.

(1) Scanning

(2) Summarising

(3) Skimming

(4) Scaffolding

Q 146. A teacher asks her learners of class-VII to refer to the textbook of History and find a theme which can be connected with English language text for writing an essay.

What is this practice known as ?

(1) Language and Social Science learning

(2) Language across the curriculum

(3) Language in learning

(4) Language and history integrated learning

Q 147. Multilingualism as a resource means

(1) learning many languages in school.

(2) using the languages of learners as a strategy in school.

(3) teaching many languages.

(4) promoting of languages through content learning.

Q 148. Match the types of writing with their corresponding category :

a. Personal writing	i. Letter of complaint
b. Study writing	ii. Diary writing
c. Creative writing	iii. Synopsis writing
d. Public writing	iv. Travelogue

	a	b	c	d
(1)	i	ii	iii	iv
(2)	ii	iii	iv	i
(3)	iii	ii	i	iv
(4)	iv	iii	ii	i

Q 149. A teacher divides her class into groups of five and allocates different themes to the groups. The groups have to collect information on the themes and write reports to be presented to the class. What is this activity known as ?

(1) Assignment

(2) Project work

(3) Writing work

(4) Research

Q 150. Process approach to writing involves

(1) Brainstorming, outlining, drafting revising, proof-reading and drafting the final writing.

(2) Brainstorming, writing the first draft and final writing.

(3) Outlining, revising and writing the final draft.

(4) Writing the first draft, revising and developing the final draft.

CTET December 2019 Paper-I Previous Year Paper

CTET DECEMBER 2019 PAPER I

PART – I

CHILD DEVELOPMENT AND PEDAGOGY

Directions : Answer the following questions (Q. Nos. 1 to 30) by selecting the correct/most appropriate options.

Q 1. The most critical period of acquisition and development of language is

(1) prenatal period.

(2) early childhood.

(3) middle childhood.

(4) adolescence.

Q 2. Which of the following is a stage of moral development proposed by Lawrence Kohlberg ?

(1) Latency Stage

(2) The social contract orientation

(3) Concrete operational stage

(4) Industry vs. Inferiority stage

Q 3. During classroom discussions, a teacher often pays more attention to boys than girls. This is an example of

(1) Gender bias.

(2) Gender identity.

(3) Gender relevance.

(4) Gender constancy.

Q 4. Which of the following is an effective strategy to reduce children’s gender stereotyping and gender-role conformity ?

(1) Discussion about gender bias

(2) Emphasizing gender-specific roles

(3) Gender-segregated play groups

(4) Gender-segregated seating arrangement

Q 5. Which of the following theorists while viewing children as active seekers of knowledge emphasized the influence of social and cultural contents on their thinking ?

(1) John B. Watson

(2) Lev Vygotsky

(3) Jean Piaget

(4) Lawrence Kohlberg

Q 6. While working on a jig-saw puzzle, 5 years old Najma says to herself, “Where is the blue piece ? No, not this one, darker one that would go here and make this shoe”.

This kind of talk is referred to by Vygotsky as

(1) private speech.

(2) talk aloud.

(3) scaffolding.

(4) egocentric speech.

Q 7. Giving cues to children and offering support as and when needed is an example of

(1) reinforcement.

(2) conditioning.

(3) modelling.

(4) scaffolding.

Q 8. Which of the following behaviours characterize the ‘concrete operational stage’ as proposed by Jean Piaget ?

(1) Hypothetico-deductive reasoning; propositional thought

(2) Conservation; class inclusion

(3) Deferred imitation; object permanence

(4) Make-believe play; irreversibility of thought

Q 9. Which of the following is a Piagetian construct in the context of cognitive development of children ?

(1) Schemas

(2) Observational learning

(3) Conditioning

(4) Reinforcement

Q 10. Primary objective of Assessment should be

(1) assigning rank to students.

(2) understanding children’s clarity and confusions about related concepts.

(3) labelling students as per their score.

(4) marking pass or fail in the report cards.

Q 11. Which of the following statements about intelligence is correct ?

(1) Intelligence is a fixed ability determined at the time of birth only.

(2) Intelligence can be accurately measured and determined by using standardized tests.

(3) Intelligence is a unitary factor and a single trait.

(4) Intelligence is multidimensional and a set of complex abilities.

Q 12. Ruhi always thinks of multiple solutions to a problem many of which are original solutions. Ruhi is displaying characteristics of a/an

(1) creative thinker.

(2) convergent thinker.

(3) rigid thinker.

(4) egocentric thinker.

Q 13. In a situation of less participation of students belonging to a deprived group in teaching – learning process, a teacher should

(1) ask the children to withdraw from school.

(2) accept this situation as it is.

(3) lower her expectations from such students.

(4) reflect on her own teaching and find ways to improve student’s involvement.

Q 14. In an inclusive classroom, a teacher _________ Individualized Education Plans.

(1) should not prepare

(2) should occasionally prepare

(3) should actively prepare

(4) should discourage the preparation of

Q 15. The primary characteristic of children with ‘dyslexia’ includes

(1) attention deficit disorders.

(2) divergent thinking; fluency in reading.

(3) inability to read fluently.

(4) engaging in repetitive locomotor actions.

Q 16. The concept of ‘Inclusive Education’ as advocated in the Right to Education Act, 2009 is based on

(1) the behaviouristic principles.

(2) a sympathetic attitude towards disabled.

(3) a rights-based humanistic perspective.

(4) mainstreaming of the disabled by offering them primarily vocational education.

Q 17. In the constructivist framework, learning is primarily

(1) based on rote-memorization.

(2) centered around reinforcement.

(3) acquired through conditioning.

(4) focused on the process of meaning making.

Q 18. ‘Naive theories’ that children construct about various phenomenon

(1) should be ignored by the teacher.

(2) should be punished by the teacher.

(3) should be ‘replaced’ by correct one through repetitive memorization.

(4) should be challenged by presenting counter evidence and examples.

Q 19. Child-centered pedagogy promotes

(1) exclusive reliance on text books.

(2) giving primacy to children’s experiences.

(3) rote memorisation.

(4) labelling and categorization of students base on ability.

Q 20. Emotions and cognition are _________ each other.

(1) completely separate from

(2) independent of

(3) inter-woven with

(4) not related to

Q 21. Which of the following statements about learning is correct from a constructivist perspective ?

(1) Learning is the process of reproduction and recall.

(2) Learning is the process of rote memorization.

(3) Learning is conditioning of behaviours by repetitive association.

(4) Learning is the process of construction of knowledge by active engagement.

Q 22. Presenting students with clear examples and non-examples

(1) is an effective way to encourage conceptual change.

(2) leads to confusion in the minds of students.

(3) causes gaps in their understanding of concepts.

(4) focuses on procedural knowledge rather than conceptual understanding.

Q 23. Repeatedly asking children to engage in learning activities either to avoid punishment or to gain a reward

(1) decreases extrinsic motivation.

(2) increases intrinsic motivation.

(3) would encourage children to focus on mastery rather than performance goals.

(4) decreases children’s natural interest and curiosity involved in learning.

Q 24. Which of the following practices promote meaningful learning ?

(i) Corporal punishment

(ii) Cooperative learning environment

(iii) Continuous and comprehensive evaluation

(iv) Constant comparative evaluation

(1) (i), (ii)

(2) (ii), (iii)

(3) (i), (ii), (iii)

(4) (ii), (iii), (iv)

Q 25. How can teachers facilitate understanding of complex concepts in children ?

(1) By delivering a lecture

(2) By organizing competitive events

(3) By repetitive mechanical drill

(4) By providing opportunities for exploration and discussion

Q 26. A primary school teacher can encourage children to become effective problem solvers by

(1) offering materialistic rewards for every small tasks.

(2) emphasizing only on procedural knowledge.

(3) dismissing and penalizing ‘incorrect answers’.

(4) encouraging children to make intuitive guesses and then brainstorming on the same.

Q 27. In which of the following periods does physical growth and development occur at a rapid pace ?

(1) Infancy and early childhood

(2) Early childhood and middle childhood

(3) Middle childhood and adolescence

(4) Adolescence and adulthood

Q 28. Which of the following is NOT a principle of development ?

(1) Development is lifelong.

(2) Development is modifiable.

(3) Development is influenced by both heredity and environment.

(4) Development is universal and cultural contents do not influence it.

Q 29. The primary cause of individual variations is

(1) the genetic code received by the individuals from birth parents.

(2) the inborn characteristics.

(3) the environmental influences.

(4) the complex interplay between the heredity and the environment.

Q 30. Which of the following are examples of secondary socializing agency ?

(1) Family and neighbourhood

(2) Family and media

(3) School and media

(4) Media and neighbourhood

PART – II

MATHEMATICS

Directions : Answer the following questions by selecting the correct/most appropriate options.

Q 31. Three brands of pens A, B and C are available in packets of 10, 12 and 24 respectively. If a shopkeeper wants to buy equal number of pens of each brand, what is the minimum number of packets of each brand, he should buy ?

(1) A = 10, B = 12, C = 5

(2) A = 5, B = 12, C = 10

(3) A = 10, B = 5, C = 12

(4) A = 12, B = 10, C = 5

Q 32. The side of a square is 4 cm. It is cut into 4 equal squares. What is the area of each small square ?

(1) 4 cm²

(2) 1 cm²

(3) 16 cm²

(4) 8 cm²

Q 33. Which of the following statements is not correct ?

(1) All prime numbers are odd numbers.

(2) There are infinitely many prime numbers.

(3) A prime number has only two factors.

(4) There are only four single digit prime numbers.

Q 34. A number that is divisible by all the numbers from 1 to 10 (both inclusive) is

(1) 10

(2) 100

(3) 604

(4) 2520

Q 35. Ayesha has only ` 5 and ` 10 coins with her. If the total number of coins she has is 25 and the amount of money with her is ` 160, then the number of ` 5 and ` 10 coins with her are

(1) 18 and 7 respectively

(2) 10 and 15 respectively

(3) 15 and 10 respectively

(4) 20 and 5 respectively

Q 36. Evaluate :

17.5 × 3 – 21 ÷ 7 – 3 × 12.5

(1) 52.5

(2) 12

(3) 120

(4) 50

Q 37. One-sixth of the trees in a garden are neem trees. Half of the trees are Ashoka trees and the remaining are eucalyptus trees. If the number of neem trees is five, how many eucalyptus trees are there in the garden ?

(1) 5

(2) 10

(3) 15

(4) 20

Q 38. A train leaves Delhi on 29^th August, 2019 at 16 : 30 hours and reaches its destination on 31^st August at 08 : 45 hours. The total travel time of the journey is

(1) 36 hours 15 minutes

(2) 38 hours 45 minutes

(3) 39 hours 45 minutes

(4) 40 hours 15 minutes

Q 39. In which of the following, lengths have been arranged in decreasing order ?

(1) 8500 mm, 800 cm 8 mm, 80 dm 8 cm, 8 m

(2) 80 dm 8 cm, 8500 mm, 8 m, 800 cm 8 mm

(3) 8 m, 80 dm 8 cm, 8500 mm, 800 cm 8 mm

(4) 8500 mm, 80 dm 8 cm, 800 cm 8 mm, 8 m

Q 40. A 180 cm long wire is formed into a rectangle. If the width of this rectangle is 30 cm, what is its length ?

(1) 45 cm

(2) 60 cm

(3) 90 cm

(4) 120 cm

Q 41. When asked to write 44, some students of grade II wrote it as 404. As a teacher, how will you address this ?

(1) correct their answer in their copies

(2) explain principle of exchange using concrete material

(3) group them with those who have done it correctly

(4) tell them to find out correct answer

Q 42. The main purpose of introducing ‘mapping’ in the primary Mathematics curriculum is/are

A. to promote spatial thinking

B. to promote proportional reasoning

C. to make subject easy and interesting

D. to break the monotony of numbers

1) A & C

(2) A & D

(3) A & B

(4) B & C

Q 43. Which of the following topics are not part of primary school Mathematics curriculum as per NCF 2005 ?

(1) Tessellation

(2) Symmetry

(3) Patterns

(4) Ratio

Q 44. Which of the following resources/TLM can be used by the teacher to show that two rectangles of different dimensions can have the same area without using formula ?

A. Scale

B. Graph paper

C. Thread

D. Tiles

(1) only B

(2) B & D

(3) only C

(4) A & D

Q 45. Which of the following could be contributing factor to underachievement in mathematics ?

(1) Gender

(2) Socio-cultural backbroud

(3) Nature of Mathematics

(4) Innate ability of person

Q 46. Which of the following is the most appropriate strategy to explain that ¼ is less than ⅓?

(1) using LCM method

(2) using paper strips

(3) using Dienes blocks

(4) using number chart

Q 47. Which of the following is the most important aspect of making lesson plan while teaching Mathematics to primary school children ?

(1) following the sequence of text book.

(2) presenting mathematical concepts in structured manner.

(3) providing opportunities to students to allow construction of concepts.

(4) writing activities and questions for reference.

Q 48. Which of the following can NOT be considered a feature of a constructivist Mathematics classroom ?

(1) The role of language and dialogue in learning Mathematics is given due attention.

(2) The teacher acknowledges that students may construct multiple understandings from a given interaction.

(3) Objective type test items are used as the primary means of assessment.

(4) Connections between Mathematics and other curricular areas are highlighted.

Q 49. Which of the following statements is in agreement with the constructionist view of Mathematics ?

(1) Mathematics is about learning facts.

(2) Mathematicians are required to discover the ‘truths’.

(3) Mathematics is entirely objective.

(4) Visualisation is an important aspect of Mathematics.

Q 50. Which of the following activities is best suited for the development of spatial understanding among children ?

(1) Drawing the top view of a bottle

(2) Locating cities on a map

(3) Noting the time of moon rise

(4) Representing numbers on a number line

Q 51. Which of the following is NOT true with respect to the learning of Mathematics ?

(1) Ability to perform and excel in Mathematics is innate.

(2) Teachers’ beliefs about learners have powerful impact on learning outcomes.

(3) Students’ socio-economic background impacts their performance in Mathematics.

(4) School’s language of instruction can impact a child’s performance in Mathematics.

Q 52. Identify the type of the following word problem :

“I have 6 pencils. Manish has two more than me. How many pencils does Manish have ?”

(1) Comparison addition

(2) Comparison subtraction

(3) Takeaway addition

(4) Takeaway subtraction

Q 53. Which of the following is NOT true of the Hindu-Arabic system of numeration ?

(1) The position of a digit in a number dictates its value.

(2) It is additive in nature.

(3) It follows the base 2 system.

(4) It is multiplicative in nature.

Q 54. Identify a desirable practice for teaching Geometry at primary level ?

(1) Geometry at primary level should be limited to recognition of simple basic shapes.

(2) The teacher should begin by giving clear definitions of simple shapes and showing examples.

(3) Children should be given ample opportunities to develop an intuitive understanding of space.

(4) Developing extensive geometric vocabulary need not be an objective at primary level.

Q 55. Which of the following is an indicator of mathematical reasoning ?

(1) Ability to provide definitions of mathematical concepts.

(2) Ability to provide a justification for a mathematical procedure.

(3) Ability to calculate efficiently.

(4) Ability to recall the correct formulae in different situations.

Q 56. The price list of vegetables in a super market is given as follows :

Item Quantity Price (Rs.)

Tomato 1 kg 40 Potato 2 kg 25 Carrot 250 g 20 Bottlegourd 1 kg 10 Chillies 100 g 10 Lemon 4 pieces 10

Sanjay buys ¹₂ kg tomatoes, 1 kg potatoes_,¹₂ kg carrot, 250 g chillies and 6 lemons. He gives a note of Rs. 200 to the bill clerk at the counter. How much money will he get back ?

(1) Rs. 112.50

(2) Rs. 87.50

(3) Rs. 86.50

(4) Rs. 97.50

Q 57. The number is

I am a 2 digit number.
The digit in tens place and the digit in units place are consecutive prime numbers.
The sum of digits is multiple of 3 and 4.

(1) 57

(2) 23

(3) 35

(4) 13

Q 58. The parking rates of car in a railway station parking are depicted as follows :

(a) Upto 2 hrs – Rs 50

(b) More than 2 hrs and upto 5 hrs – Rs 75

(d) More than 8 hrs and upto 12 hrs – Rs 150

(e) More than 12 hrs and upto 24 hrs – Rs 250

Rajeev parks his car at 7.00 a.m. and comes back to pick it up at 4.30 p.m. on the same day. How much money does he have to pay ?

(1) Rs 135

(2) Rs 150

(3) Rs 130

(4) Rs 100

Q 59. Which of the following is at third place when the numbers are arranged in ascending order ?

7.07, 7.70, 7.707, 7.007, 0.77

(1) 7.70

(2) 7.007

(3) 7.07

(4) 7.707

Q 60. In a five digit number, the digit at ten’s place is 8, digit at units place is one-fourth of the digit at ten’s place, the digit at thousands place is 0, digit at hundreds place is twice that of units place and the digit at ten thousands place is thrice the digit at unit’s place. What is the number ?

(1) 64082

(2) 64028

(3) 46028

(4) 60482

PART – III / – III

ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES

Directions : Answer the following questions by selecting the correct/most appropriate options.

Q 61. A person boarded an express train on 29^th November, 2019 at Surat (Gujarat) for Nagarcoil (Kerala). The train departed from Surat at 19:45 hours and reached Nagarcoil at 11:45 hours on 1^st December, 2019. If the distance between Surat and Nagarcoil by train route is nearly 2120 km, the average speed of the train during this journey was

(1) 132.5 km/h

(2) 60 km/h

(3) 53 km/h

(4) 45 km/h

Q 62. Which one of the following is a weight lifter of international fame ?

(1) Sunita Williams

(2) Bachhendri Pal

(3) Suryamani

(4) Karnam Malleshwari

Q 63. Which one of the following is a group of roots ?

(1) Beetroot, Potato, Ginger

(2) Carrot, Turmeric, Ginger

(3) Sweet Potato, Radish, Turmeric

(4) Carrot, Beetroot, Radish

Q 64. Desert Oak is a tree which is found in

(1) Abu Dhabi

(2) Australia

(3) desert of Rajasthan

(4) the desert of UAE

Q 65. Consider the following statements about Nepenthese, a plant which hunts.

A. This plant is found in Australia, Indonesia and Meghalaya in India.

B. It has a pitcher-like shape and the mouth is covered by a leaf.

C. It can trap and eat only small insects.

D. It emits a pleasant sound to attract small insects which get trapped and cannot get out.

The correct statements are

(1) A and B only

(2) A and C only

(3) B and D only

(4) A, B and C

Q 66. In which one of the following states of India is Dandi seashore located where Mahatma Gandhi did his famous march before independence ?

(1) Andhra Pradesh

(2) Karnataka

(3) Maharashtra

(4) Gujarat

Q 67. High fever with shiver which can be treated with the bark of Cinchona tree is

(1) typhoid

(2) malaria

(3) chikungunya

(4) dengue

Q 68. A doctor is located at X and his hospital is located at Y. There is no straight lane from the doctor’s house to the hospital. So, the doctor first goes to A which is 600 m due east of X, then goes to B which is 450 m due south of A, then to C which is 120 m due west of B and finally reaches the hospital at Y which is 90 m due north of C. With respect to the hospital the correct direction of the doctors house is (1) north-east

(2) north-west

(3) south-east

(4) south-west

Q 69. “Cheraw” is the dance form of the people of

(1) Jharkhand

(2) Mizoram

(3) Manipur

(4) Meghalaya

Q 70. Neighbouring states of Tamil Nadu are –

(1) Andhra Pradesh, Odisha, Karnataka

(2) Kerala, Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra

(3) Karnataka, Chhattisgarh, Kerala

(4) Andhra Pradesh, Kerala, Karnataka

Q 71. Which one of the following should NOT be the objective of teaching EVS at primary level as per NCF-2005 ?

(1) To nurture the curiosity and creativity of the child particularly in relation to the natural environment.

(2) To engage the child in exploratory and hands on activities to acquire basic cognitive and psychomotor skills through observation, classification, inference, etc.

(3) To train children to locate and comprehend relationships between the natural, social and cultural environment.

(4) To develop precise quantitative skills among children through understanding of environmental issues.

Q 72. EVS for classes-III to V is a subject area which integrates –

(1) the concepts and issues of Science.

(2) the concepts and issues of Science, Social studies and Environmental education.

(3) the concepts and issues of Social science and Science.

(4) the concepts and issues of Science and Environmental education.

Q 73. Which of the following is true w.r.t. EVS ?

(1) EVS is a subject taught from classes I to V.

(2) For classes I and II, EVS is taught through language and Mathematics.

(3) For classes II, III and IV, issues and concerns of EVS are taught through language and Mathematics.

(4) For classes I and II, concerns and issues of EVS are taught through Science and Social science.

Q 74. Children get lot of space to learn EVS through exploration. This indicates that

(1) EVS is learnt through rote.

(2) EVS is learnt through information.

(3) EVS is child centred.

(4) EVS is teacher centred.

Q 75. Which of the following is a subtheme under the theme suggested in the EVS syllabus ?

(1) Family and Friends

(2) Food

(3) Animals

(4) Things we make and do

Q 76. Which of the following is a desirable practice for an EVS teacher ?

(1) Addressing multicultural dimensions of diverse classrooms.

(2) Encouraging children to provide important information related to the concepts of EVS.

(3) Linear arrangement of six themes of EVS.

(4) Relying only in textbooks.

Q 77. Which of the following is/are important in constructing knowledge in EVS by the children ?

A. Active participation of children.

B. Community members of children

C. Text books of EVS

D. Description and definition given in the textbook of EVS

(1) A, B and C

(2) A and C only

(3) A, C and D

(4) C only

Q 78. Children can be effectively engaged in EVS learning through

A. Narratives

B. Stories

C. Effective explanation of concepts by the teacher

D. Effective demonstration and explanation of concepts by the teacher

(1) A, C, D

(2) A and B only

(3) C and D only

(4) A, B and C

Q 79. Objective/s of EVS teacher who encourages his/her children to observe animals and make pictures on their own is/are to

A. Develop creativity of children

B. Develop observation and design skills of children

C. Develop aesthetic sense of children

(1) A only

(2) A and C only

(3) B only

(4) A, B and C

Q 80. In EVS learning of crafts and arts while working in groups, is encouraged because

A. Group learning is easier and very effective strategy for teachers to tackle the problem of indiscipline of the class.

B. Group learning promotes peer learning.

C. Group learning improves social interactions.

D. Group learning help in completing the syllabus of EVS in time.

(1) A and D only

(2) B and D only

(3) B and C only

(4) C and D only

Q 81. Which of the following is/are the most effective resource for EVS learning ?

A. Family members

B. Members of the community

C. Newspapers

D. Classroom

(1) D only

(2) C and D only

(3) A, B and C

(4) A and B only

Q 82. Which of the following principle of learning is followed in EVS ?

(1) Global to local

(2) Abstract to concrete

(3) Unknown to known

(4) Known to unknown

Q 83. Which of the following is NOT a tool for Formative Assessment of learning in EVS?

(1) Portfolio

(2) Rating scale

(3) Anecdotal records

(4) Annual achievement test

Q 84. Which of the following should be avoided while assessing children in EVS ?

(1) Judging the answers given by children in terms of right or wrong.

(2) Discuss “What we have learnt” given at the end of each chapter of EVS textbook of class V

(3) Use indicators for assessment

(4) Qualitative assessment of children’s learning

Q 85. A teacher of class V conducts an activity in which she asks her children to drop some sugar on the ground and asks them to wait until the ants come there. Children can be given meaningful learning from this activity if teacher _____.

(1) encourages her/his children to observe the activity

(2) encourages his/her children to share their experiences

(3) encourages her/his children to observe, share their experiences followed by discussion on the activity.

(4) encourages her/his children to answer the questions at their home related to the activity.

Q 86. Consider the following list : Tortoise, Crocodile, Crow, Duck, Fish

In this list which one of the following is different from the others ?

(1) Fish

(2) Crow

(3) Crocodile

(4) Tortoise

Q 87. The correct match of term of Column-I with that of Column-II is :

Column-I(City/State)	Column-II (Most liked food)
A. Hongkong	I. Boiled tapioca with any cury
B. Kerala	II. Fish cooked in mustard oil
C. Kashmir	III. Sea fish cooked in coconut oil
D. Goa	IV. Chholay Bhature
	V. Cooked Snakes

(1) A-V; B-II; C-III; D-IV

(2) A-V; B-I; C-II; D-III

(3) A-V; B-III; C-II; D-I

(4) A-III; B-II; C-IV; D-I

Q 88. Which one of the following bird’s species moves its neck back and forth with a jerk.

(1) Owl

(2) Crow

(3) Barbet

(4) Mynah

Q 89. Consider the following description of houses :

A. In Rajasthan the villagers live in mud houses with roofs of thorny bushes.

B. In Manali (Himachal Pradesh) houses are made on bamboo pillers

C. In Leh two floor houses are made of stones. The ground floor is for animals and for storing necessary things.

The correct statement(s) is/are (1) A and B

(2) B and C

(3) A and C

(4) Only C

Q 90. Consider the following statements about elephants :

A. Elephants do not rest very much, they sleep 2 to 4 hours only in a day.

B. An adult elephant can eat more than 200 kg of leaves and twigs in a day.

C. They love to play with mud and water, the mud keeps their skin cool.

D. In elephant herd the oldest female elephant decides everything.

The correct statements are

(1) A, B and C

(2) B, C and D

(3) C, D and A

(4) A, B and D

PART – IV

LANGUAGE – I

ENGLISH

IMPORTANT : Candidates should attempt questions from Part – IV (Q. No. 91-120), if they have opted for ENGLISH as LANGUAGE – I only.

Directions : Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow (Q. Nos. 91 to 99), by selecting the correct/ most appropriate options :

1. Kangri Karchok, the Kailash Purana of the Tibetans describes the sacred elephant-mouthed river or Langchen Khambab as a long and extensive river that rises from the ‘lake unconquerable’, the Tso Maphan or Manasarovar that flows from the mountainous regions of Tibet. According to this holy book, this cold river with its sands of gold, circles the holy Manasarovar seven times before taking its course to the west.

2. The Langchen Khambab flows down from the red coloured mountains of the Kanglung Kangri Glacier in the Trans Himalayan region of Tibet, channelling its way through the earth forests of Tholing and Tsparang of the Gugi Kingdom. These earth forests are full of pillars formed by rocks that collectively appear like a forest from afar – an ‘out of the world’ landscape that was formed by geological movements of the earth and erosion by wind and water. The Khyunglung ruins also lies on the northern bank of the Sutlej river in this valley which was once known as the ‘Garuda Valley”.

3. This mighty river then flows north-west for about 260 km before entering Himachal Pradesh through Shipki La cutting across the formidable Himalayan ranges of Zanskar, the Greater Himalaya and the Dhauladhar. Subsequently, the waters meander through the gigantic Kinnaur Kailash-Jorkanden Range at Reckong Peo creating the terrifying Sutlej gorge. Then it streams into Shimla, Kullu, Mandi and Bilaspur and is responsible for the rich cultivation of grapes, apples and apricots all along its banks. After its confluence with the River Spiti at Khab it is known as Sutlej.

4. It is 1,448 km in length, making it the longest among the five rivers of Punjab. Extensively used for irrigation, it is topographically divided into the Upper Sutlej Basin and Lower Sutlej Basin. It leaves the Himachal boundary to enter the plains of the Punjab at the Bhakra Dam, the second highest gravity dam and a major point of water supply and electricity generation for the North of India.

Q 91. What makes the earth forests of Tholing and Tsparang look amazing ?

(1) The ruins on the banks of the Sutlej.

(2) Abundance of flora and fauna.

(3) Cool breeze that makes people feel drowsy.

(4) Pillars formed by rocks resembling a forest.

Q 92. Langchen Khambab is a boon for the North of India because :

(1) it is a major source of water supply and power generation.

(2) it brings along with it mountain soil and minerals.

(3) the prosperity of the whole of India depends on it.

(4) it abounds in aquatic animals.

Q 93. Read the following sentences :

A. Kangri Karchok is a holy book of the Tibetans.

B. Langchen Khambab is responsible for rich cultivation of various types of fruits in the Himachal Pradesh.

(1) A is true, B is false.

(2) B is true, A is false.

(3) Both A and B are true.

(4) Both A and B are false.

Q 94. Which one of the following words is most similar in meaning to the word ‘gigantic’ as used in the passage (Para 4) ?

(1) terrifying

(2) high

(3) formidable

(4) huge

Q 95. Which one of the following words is the most opposite in meaning to the word ‘sacred’ as used in the passage (Para 1) ?

(1) pure

(2) noble

(3) unholy

(4) moral

Q 96. Which part of the following sentence contains an error ?

I am not in best position to advise you in this matter

(b) (c) (d)

(1) (a)

(2) (b)

(3) (d)

(4) (c)

Q 97. Which part of speech is the underlined word in the following sentence :

I don’t know why he is so hostile to me.

(1) Adjective

(2) Adverb

(3) Preposition

(4) Pronoun

Q 98. ‘Lake unconquerable’ refers to :

(1) Langchen Khambab river

(2) Lake Manasarovar

(3) Lake Rakshatal

(4) The Sutlej river

Q 99. According to Kangri Karchok, Langchen Khambab does not/is not

(1) have sands of gold.

(2) circle the Manasarovar seven times.

(3) flow very gently through the hills.

(4) a cold river.

Directions : Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow (Q. Nos. 100 to 105) by selecting the correct/most appropriate options :

Light Brigade

By Alfred Tennyson

Half a league, half a league,

Half a league onward,

All in the valley of Death

Rode the six hundred.

“Forward the Light Brigade !

Charge for the guns !” he said.

Into the valley of Death

Rode the six hundred.

Forward, the Light Brigade!”

Was there a man dismay’d ?

Not tho’ the soldier knew

Some one had blunder’d.

Theirs not to make reply,

Theirs not to reason why,

Theirs but to do and die.

Into the valley of Death

Rode the six hundred.

Q 100. The expression ‘the valley of death’ refers to :

(1) the place where the dead soldiers are lying buried.

(2) the impending death of soldiers.

(3) the house of death.

(4) a nightmarish place.

Q 101. Which of the following statements is not true ?

The military discipline teaches the soldiers :

(1) to do and die.

(2) to obey their commander’s order.

(3) to act tactfully in the battlefield.

(4) not to ask any question.

Q 102. Which of the following adjectives does not apply to the soldiers ?

(1) courageous

(2) disciplined

(3) patriotic

(4) impractical

Q 103. Name the figure of speech used in ‘the Valley of Death’.

(1) Metaphor

(2) Simile

(3) Synecdoche

(4) Metonymy

Q 104. Which literary device is used in the expression, ‘to do and die’ ?

(1) Assonance

(2) Alliteration

(3) Simile

(4) Personification

Q 105. In the first stanza of the extract, the soldiers are :

(1) talking to each other about their personal problems.

(2) waiting for their commander’s order.

(3) thinking about the result of the war.

(4) seen riding fast to the enemy territory.

Q 106. In the multilingual classroom learners can interact _____.

(1) in the medium of instruction followed by the school.

(2) in their own language and can be a mix of words from more than one language.

(3) only in the language prescribed in three-language formula.

(4) in the language with which the teacher is familiar.

Q 107. Diagnostic tests are administered to _____.

(1) find out deficiencies of the students with a view to planning remedies.

(2) assess the suitability of a candidate for a specific programme.

(3) test the language proficiency of students for providing them jobs.

(4) judge the students’ capabilities.

Q 108. Structural approach gives more importance to _____.

(1) speech and reading

(2) reading only

(3) speech only

(4) reading and writing

Q 109. Which among the following does not come under meaning based activities ?

(1) Interacting with the text.

(2) Using previous knowledge.

(3) Reading the text and then narrating the same to peers.

(4) Reading out every word aloud and translating it.

Q 110. _____ comprehension is the skill of reading a piece of text closely or intensely for the purpose of extracting specific information from the text.

(1) Inferential

(2) Global

(3) Local

(4) Transactional

Q 111. It is a type of writing in which the teacher provides the situation and helps the class to prepare it. The teacher continuously provides feedback, direction and expansion of ideas to the learners.

(1) Controlled writing

(2) Guided writing

(3) Free writing

(4) Product writing

Q 112. A teacher asked the students of class V to read the text thoroughly. Then she asked them to answer the questions with reference to the context (RTC). In this process she is encouraging students for _____.

(1) skimming

(2) scanning

(3) intensive reading

(4) extensive reading

Q 113. The term ‘Comprehensible input’ is associated with _____.

(1) Lev Vygotsky

(2) Stephen Krashan

(3) Noam Chomsky

(4) James Asher

Q 114. Which one of the following is not a sub skill of reading ?

(1) Connecting

(2) Predicting

(3) Synthesizing

(4) Transcripting

Q 115. Which one of the following is least important in enhancing speaking skill of children ?

(1) Listening patiently to children’s talk.

(2) Giving them an opportunity to express their feelings and ideas.

(3) Asking closed ended questions.

(4) Organizing discussions on a given topic.

Q 116. At primary level literature is helpful in developing language of learners as :

(1) it encourages the learners to complete the worksheets based on it.

(2) it is an authentic material covering various genres.

(3) it develops teachers’ interpretative, creative and critical abilities.

(4) it is a good basis for the only expansion of vocabulary.

Q 117. A teacher prepares a worksheet and removes every seventh word from the text. Then she asks the learners to read the text after that they were asked to complete the worksheet with missing word. The task given on the worksheet is a

(1) speaking task

(2) writing task

(3) cloze test

(4) open test

Q 118. ‘Language is arbitrary’ means that _____

(1) something is determined by judgement and for a specific reason.

(2) it is based on a valid reason and not on chance.

(3) there is a strong relation between the words of a language and their meaning.

(4) there is no inherent relation between the words of a language and their meaning.

Q 119. The teacher observed that Pravin could not write a paragraph on her own even after brainstorming the topic. However, she was able to write it under adult or peer guidance. This guidance is called _____.

(1) Team teaching

(2) Counselling

(3) Scaffolding

(4) Socialization

Q 120. The purpose of textual exercise is not to

(1) develop creativity among learners.

(2) provide opportunity to express themselves.

(3) memorise the answers to the questions.

(4) give exposure to language learning.

PART – V

LANGUAGE – II

ENGLISH

IMPORTANT : Candidates should attempt questions from Part – V (Q. No. 121-150), if they have opted for ENGLISH as LANGUAGE – II only.

Directions : Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow (Q. No. 121 to 128) by choosing the correct/most appropriate options :

Freedom is one of the most important factors in life. Man has fought politically all over the world for freedom. Religions have promised freedom, not in this world but in another. In the capitalist countries, individual freedom exists to some degree, and in the communist world it has been denied. From ancient times, freedom has meant a great deal to man, and there have been its opponents, not only political but religious through Inquisition, by excommunication, tortures and banishments, and the total denial of man’s search for freedom. There have been wars and counter-wars fought for freedom. This has been the pattern of man’s endeavours for freedom throughout history.

Freedom of self-expression and freedom of speech and thought exist in some parts of the world, but in others it does not. Those who have been conditioned, revolt against their backgrounds. This reaction which takes different forms is called ‘freedom’. The reaction to politics is often to shun the field of politics.

One economic reaction is to form small communities based on some ideology or under the leadership of one person, but these soon disintegrate. The religious reaction against established organisations of belief is to revolt, either by joining other religious organisations or by following some guru or leader or by joining some cult. Or one denies the whole religious endeavour.

One thinks of freedom only as freedom of movement, either physical or movements of thought. It appears that one always seeks freedom on the surface. Surely, this is rather a limited freedom, involving a great deal of conflict, wars and violence.

Inner freedom is something entirely different. It has its roots not in the idea of freedom but in the reality of freedom. It covers all the endeavours of man. Without inner freedom life will always be an activity within the limited circle of time and conflict.

Q 121. Which methods do authorities not use to suppress people fighting for freedom ?

(1) Inquisition

(2) Excommunication

(3) Persuasion

(4) Tortures

Q 122. Reaction against established religion prompts people not to :

(1) join other religious organisations.

(2) to start a new religion.

(3) follow some guru.

(4) join some cult.

Q 123. Real freedom, according to the author, is

(1) economic freedom.

(2) inner freedom.

(3) political freedom.

(4) religious freedom.

Q 124. Read the following sentences :

A. Individual freedom does not exist at all in capitalist countries.

B. People do not have individual freedom in communist countries.

(1) A is false, B is true.

(2) A is true, B is false.

(3) Both A and B are true.

(4) Both A and B are false.

Q 125. Which word is most similar in meaning to the word ‘endeavours’ as used in the passage ? (Para 1)

(1) movements

(2) attempts

(3) actions

(4) challenges

Q 126. Which word is the most opposite in meaning to the word, ‘shun’ as used in the passage ? (Para 2)

(1) prefer

(2) rehabilitate

(3) welcome

(4) rejoice

Q 127. Which part of the following sentence contains an error ?

There is no doubt that hard work paves the way to success.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (d)

(2) (a)

(3) (b)

(4) (c)

Q 128. Which of the following statements is not true ?

(1) Man can enjoy life only in an environment of freedom.

(2) Material progress cannot be achieved without freedom.

(3) Freedom is not one of the most important factors in life.

(4) Freedom helps man evolve morally and spiritually.

Directions : Read the passage given below carefully and answer the questions that follow (Q. Nos. 129 to 135) by selecting the correct/most appropriate options.

Water is the core of life; hence water must be central to our spiritual thinking. Water is not only most of earth, but also most of life. Therefore water conservation must be our deepest concern.

The Himalayan mountain range is among the highest, youngest and most fragile ecosystems of the planet. The Himalayas have given us some of the great river systems of the earth including the Indus, Ganga, Brahmaputra, Nu Salween, Yangtze and the Mekong. The Himalayas are also called the ‘Third Pole’, for they contain the largest mass of ice and snow outside the earth’s polar region, the north and south poles. There is a permanent snowline above 5,000 metres. Some of the glaciers in the region are the longest outside the two poles.

The Himalayas serve as water towers, providing water on a sustained basis to more than 1,000 million people and millions of hectares of land in South Asia. The greenery, benevolent climate, highly productive ecosystems, food production and overall happiness in South Asia are in fact, attributable to the bounty of the Himalayas. They are not only beautiful; they are life-givers. Little wonder that they are venerated as the abode of gods.

To keep the Third Pole preserved through assured conservation is one of the greatest challenges for the contemporary world. Himalayan mountains are a common but

fragile natural resource. As mountain ecosystems have enormous bearing on the earth’s systems, their special care, regeneration and conservation of their pristine resources would only bring more happiness, peace and prosperity to large parts of the world. In Agenda 21, Chapter 13 of the United Nations, the importance of mountains is underlined : “mountain environments are essential to the survival of global ecosystems.”

The Himalayas in the state of Uttarakhand are especially rich in water resources. This area is home to dozens of perennial streams and numerous other rain-fed rivers along with innumerable rivulets, waterfalls and ponds, etc.

Q 129. Which of the following has not been mentioned in the passage ?

(1) The Himalayas provide us with highly productive eco-systems.

(2) The Himalayas provide water to more than 1000 million people.

(3) The Himalayas irrigate millions of hectares of land.

(4) The Himalayas form the back bone of our tourism industry.

Q 130. Which of the following is false ?

(1) The Himalayan mountains are a fragile resource.

(2) Climate change has little effect on the Himalayas.

(3) They bring prosperity to large parts of the world.

(4) They have some of the longest glaciers.

Q 131. What is not so special about the Himalayas in the state of Uttarakhand ? The Himalayan state has :

(1) many perennial streams.

(2) huge mineral deposits.

(3) many rain fed rivers.

(4) numerous waterfalls and ponds.

Q 132. Which one of the following words is most similar in meaning to the word, ‘bounty’ ?

(1) generosity

(2) assets

(3) sympathy

(4) abundance

Q 133. Which word is opposite in meaning to the word, ‘benevolent’ ?

(1) malevolent

(2) rude

(3) untruthful

(4) indecent

Q 134. Which part of speech is the underlined word in the following sentence ?

The area is home to dozens of perennial streams.

(1) Noun

(2) Adverb

(3) Adjective

(4) Pronoun

Q 135. In the context of the passage which of the following is not true ?

Water should be central to our thinking because :

(1) We cannot survive without water.

(2) It is a life-line for our farmers.

(3) It is considered holy by most religions.

(4) It is the core of life.

Q 136. A teacher wants to create a language rich environment in her class. She should :

(1) establish a language lab in her class.

(2) motivate parents to buy language games and activities.

(3) provide an opportunity where the language is seen, noticed and used by children.

(4) ask students to use only English while communicating in the class with peers.

Q 137. Literature for children is considered as a/an _____ reading.

(1) additional burden on

(2) authentic source of

(3) hindrance material for

(4) inspirational source of

Q 138. Which one of the following is not a form of literature for children ?

(1) Picture books

(2) Thesaurus

(3) Myths and legends

(4) Tales of heroes of history

Q 139. Which one of the following statements is not correct about Print Rich Environment ?

(1) It consists of context-based relevant material for children such as pictures, rhymes, stories etc.

(2) Once the material is pasted on walls, it should not be removed for the whole session.

(3) Pictures / posters give children an opportunity to talk about things, persons and happenings.

(4) Encourage children to create their own poems, posters, stories etc. and display them in the class.

Q 140. A teacher gives a task of dialogue completion to class V students. The role of this task in language learning will be ________

(1) teaching of structures.

(2) the separation of spoken and written forms of language.

(3) to facilitate conversation by giving specific language practice using formulaic expressions.

(4) to provide frequent feedback only on grammatical errors.

Q 141. Using ‘realia’ in the language class means bringing _____.

(1) real life situations to communicate.

(2) real objects as teaching aids.

(3) realistic objectives and targets for the learners.

(4) real level of child’s learning to the knowledge of parents.

Q 142. The multilingual nature of the Indian class-room must be used as a resource so that ________.

(1) every child feels secure and accepted.

(2) every child learns at the same pace.

(3) children can learn many languages.

(4) the teacher develops language proficiency.

Q 143. An English textbook for class I starts with pictures, poems and stories and ends with alphabets in the end. Which approach does this kind of arrangement reflect in language pedagogy ?

(1) Eclectic approach

(2) Bottom-up approach

(3) Top down approach

(4) Language across curriculum approach

Q 144. While checking the notebooks the teacher observed that a child has repeatedly made some errors in writing such as reverse image as b – d, m – w. The child is showing the signs of _____.

(1) learning preference

(2) learning style

(3) learning disability

(4) learning differences

Q 145. A teacher is telling a story with actions and gestures to class III students. After this she asked them to draw pictures on the story in groups. Why do you think she asked them to draw pictures on the story ?

(1) She wanted to assess their colouring and drawing skills.

(2) She had completed her lesson as per her lesson plan so, she engaged them in drawing.

(3) She wanted to assess their comprehension of the story.

(4) She wanted to see the participation of children while drawing.

Q 146. Active vocabulary consists of words which are _____.

(1) used occasionally

(2) difficult to pronounce

(3) used frequently

(4) phonological and lexical

Q 147. The major aim of teaching poetry is _____.

(1) vocabulary development.

(2) enjoyment and appreciation.

(3) development of grammar.

(4) making learners to became poets.

Q 148. Morpheme is the

(1) smallest unit of a word.

(2) smallest unit of meaning that cannot be broken up.

(3) unit of a word that can be broken up into new meaning.

(4) smallest unit of a phrase.

Q 149. A teacher of class II uses learner’s knowledge and language to build a bridge between his mother tongue and English language teaching. Here learner’s language is used in teaching English as a _____.

(1) hindrance

(2) translation

(3) resource

(4) pattern

Q 150. BICS stands for

(1) Bilingual Integrated Content and Syllabus

(2) Bilingual Interdependent Course and Syllabus

(3) Basic Interrelated Communication Strategies

(4) Basic Interpersonal Communicative Skills

CTET December 2019 Paper-II Previous Year Paper

CTET JULY 2019 PAPER II

PART – I

CHILD DEVELOPMENT AND PEDAGOGY

Directions : Answer the following questions (Q. Nos. 1 to 30) by selecting the correct/most appropriate options.

Q 1. Noor forgot to bring her tiffin to school and asked Tanya to share her tiffin saying “You should share your tiffin with me today because I shared my tiffin with you yesterday”. According to Lawrence Kohlberg’s theory of moral development, Noor’s statements represent _________ orientation typical at _________ stage.

(1) law and order ; post-conventional

(2) obedience ; pre-conventional

(3) being nice ; conventional

(4) exchange ; conventional

Q 2. Widely held beliefs about typified characteristics deemed appropriate for different sexes in the society are referred to as

(1) gender discrimination.

(2) gender roles.

(3) gender identity.

(4) gender stereotypes.

Q 3. Recently there have been conscious efforts to include stories in curriculum where father is involved in household works and mother is doing adventure activities. This move is important because

(1) it aims to strengthen gender bias.

(2) it aims to eliminate gender stereotyping.

(3) it aims to encourage gender constancy.

(4) it aims to increase gender discrimination.

Q 4. According to Vygotsky, when adults adjust the support to extend the child’s current level of performance, it is called

(1) discovery learning.

(2) zone of proximal development.

(3) scaffolding.

(4) inter-subjectivity.

Q 5. According to Jean Piaget’s theory of cognitive development, hypothetico deductive reasoning develops during

(1) sensori-motor stage.

(2) pre-operational stage.

(3) concrete operational stage.

(4) formal operational stage.

Q 6. According to _________, it is important to understand the social processes and influence of the cultural context on children’s thinking.

(1) Lawrence Kohlberg

(2) Jean Piaget

(3) Lev Vygotsky

(4) Albert Bandura

Q 7. Drawing implications from Piaget’s theory of cognitive development, a teacher of grade 6-8 in his classroom should

(1) discourage use of logical arguments.

(2) present problems that require reasoning based solutions.

(3) use only concrete materials to teach a concept.

(4) rely solely on prescribed syllabus.

Q 8. As per Howard Gardner’s theory of multiple intelligence, what would be the characteristics of a person with ‘Logico-mathematical’ intelligence ?

(1) Sensitivity to the sounds, rhythms and meaning of words

(2) Ability to perceive visual-spatial world accurately

(3) Ability to produce and appreciate pitch, rhythm and aesthetic quality of musical expressiveness

(4) Sensitivity to and capacity to detect patterns, handle long chains of reasoning

Q 9. The process by which children develop habits, skills, values and motives that make them responsible, productive members of society is called

(1) socialization.

(2) inclusion.

(3) mainstreaming.

(4) differentiation.

Q 10. Which of the following statements about the role of heredity and environment in human development is correct ?

(1) The only reason for individual differences is heredity.

(2) Environmental influences totally shape the development of a human.

(3) Neither heredity nor environment influence human development.

(4) Heredity and environment both influence human development in a complex interplay.

Q 11. In a progressive classroom

(1) knowledge is constructed by the learner.

(2) knowledge is received passively by the learner.

(3) knowledge is reproduced by the learner as it is.

(4) knowledge is recalled by the learner as per instructions of the teacher.

Q 12. Continuous and comprehensive evaluation includes

(1) only formative assessment

(2) only summative assessment

(3) neither formation nor summative assessment

(4) both formative and summative assessments using a wide variety of strategies.

Q 13. A student in your class has been told again and again from different sources that people from his social group typically perform poorly in academics. To reduce the impact of this stereotype and resultant stereotype threat, a teacher’s initial step can be :

(1) ignoring such concerns.

(2) organizing competition between students from different social groups.

(3) suggesting the student to leave academics and join some other domain.

(4) presenting stories and examples of role models from different social groups.

Q 14. In an inclusive classroom, a teacher should

(1) believe that every child has a potential to learn as per their abilities and strength.

(2) show an attitude of pity and sympathy towards disabled learners.

(3) use labels such as ‘handicapped child’, ‘retarded child’ to categorize children.

(4) pay attention only to the gifted and talented children.

Q 15. A student shows the following signs in the classroom :

– Anxiety around reading

– Difficulty in recognizing words or letters

– Poor vocabulary skills

– Difficulty with understanding or remembering what was read

These are an indication of

(1) an autistic student.

(2) a creative student.

(3) a student with learning disability.

(4) a student with ‘mental impairment’.

Q 16. A teacher can address needs of specially abled learners in an inclusive classroom by

(1) emphasizing upon practice and drill and using paper-pencil tests for assessment.

(2) following uniform ways of instructing the students.

(3) giving a lot of written homework and stressing on copying of answers from other ‘bright students’.

(4) developing specific learning objectives based on an analysis of each student’s learning strengths and weaknesses.

Q 17. A teacher can encourage creative learners in her classroom by

(1) emphasizing convergent thinking.

(2) discouraging divergent thinking.

(3) encouraging multiple perspectives and appreciating original ideas.

(4) discouraging the students from taking risks and undertaking challenges.

Q 18. Which of the following factors supports meaningful learning in the classroom ?

(1) Increasing number of tests to motivate children to learn

(2) Increasing rewards to motivate children to learn

(3) Following only the lecture mode of instruction

(4) Showing genuine interest in the content matter and having concern for children’s overall well-being and learning.

Q 19. An example of effective problem solving strategy is

(1) Not paying any attention to evaluating the solution.

(2) Functional fixedness – focusing on only the conventional function of an object.

(3) Response set – getting stuck on one way of representing a problem.

(4) Means-end analysis – dividing the problem into number of sub-goals.

Q 20. Which of the following is NOT an effective strategy for teaching-learning ?

(1) Encouraging children to make intuitive guesses

(2) Experimentation and exploration

(3) Dialogue and discussion

(4) Focusing on reproduction of knowledge as given

Q 21. How can teachers deal with children who are non-attentive in the classroom ?

(1) Ask the children to go out of the class.

(2) Scold them frequently in front of the entire class.

(3) Talk to them and find out reasons for their disinterest.

(4) Give them a lot of worksheets as homework.

Q 22. Constructivist approach suggests that _________ is crucial for constructing knowledge.

(1) prior knowledge of the learner

(2) conditioning

(3) punishment

(4) rote memorization

Q 23. Children construct ‘naive theories’ about various phenomenon. In this background a teacher should

(1) challenge these conceptions of the children through dialogue.

(2) dismiss these ideas that children have.

(3) ignore children’s ideas and theories.

(4) scold the children for having these ideas that interfere with her teaching.

Q 24. The relationship between cognition and emotions is

(1) independent of each other.

(2) uni-directional – emotions influence cognition.

(3) uni-directional – cognition influences emotions.

(4) bi-directional – a dynamic interplay between both.

Q 25. Which of the following factors affect learning ?

(i) Interest of the student

(ii) Emotional health of the student

(iii) Pedagogical strategies

(iv) Social and cultural context of the student

(1) (i), (ii)

(2) (ii), (iii)

(3) (i), (ii), (iii)

(4) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

Q 26. _________ are an important aspect of the process of meaningful construction of knowledge.

(1) Social interactions

(2) Drill and repetitive recall

(3) Rewards and punishment

(4) Stimulus-response associations

Q 27. When students repeatedly engage in an activity (such as design and conduct an experiment) to earn a reward that is not directly related to that activity (such as earn a ‘star’ or ‘badge’) they are likely to

(1) develop materialistic attitude towards learning.

(2) enjoy learning for the sake of understanding.

(3) persist in doing the activity even without the reward.

(4) set mastery goals for themselves rather than work to please others.

Q 28. The concept of childhood is

(1) universally the same across different cultural contexts.

(2) a social construction according to contemporary socio-constructivist theorists.

(3) that children are born evil and have to be civilized.

(4) that children begin with nothing at all and their characteristics are shaped entirely by environment.

Q 29. Which of the following characterize the period of ‘middle childhood’ ?

(1) Physical growth and development occur at a very rapid pace.

(2) Ability to think abstractly and use of scientific reasoning develops.

(3) Children begin to think logically but concretely.

(4) Learning occurs primarily through sensory and motor activities.

Q 30. Family and neighbourhood are

(1) psychological agencies for children.

(2) primary socializing agencies.

(3) middle socializing agencies.

(4) secondary socializing agencies.

IMPORTANT : Candidates have to do questions 31 to 90 EITHER from Part – II (Mathematics and Science) OR from Part – III (Social Studies / Social Science).

PART – II

MATHEMATICS AND SCIENCE

Directions : Answer the following questions by selecting the correct/most appropriate options.

Q 31. How many pairs of twin primes are there between the integers 1 to 100 ?

(1) 5

(2) 6

(3) 7

(4) 8

Q 32. If 21168 = 2^a× 3^b× 7^c, where a, b and c are natural numbers, then what is the value of (4a – 5b + c) ?

(1) 0

(2) 1

(3) 2

(4) 3

Q 33. Let x be the least number which when divided by 8, 12, 20, 28, 35 leaves a remainder 5 in each case. What is the sum of digits of x ?

(1) 11

(2) 14

(3) 15

(4) 17

Q 34. What number should be subtracted from each of 50, 61, 92, 117 so that the numbers, so obtained in this order, are in proportion ?

(1) 14

(2) 17

(3) 19

(4) 23

Q 35. A sum of Rs. 1,710 is divided in A, B and C such that 4 times of A, 6 times of B and 9 times of C are equal. What is the difference between A and C ?

(1) Rs. 360

(2) Rs. 450

(3) Rs. 480

(4) Rs. 540

Q 36. The number of fruits in baskets A and B are in the ratio 7 : 9. If six fruits are taken out from A and put in B, then this ratio becomes 1 : 3. The total number of fruits in A and B is

(1) 28

(2) 32

(3) 36

(4) 40

Q 37. ΔABC and ΔADB are on the common base AB and on the same side of AB. DA⊥AB, CB⊥AB and AC = BD. Which of the following is true ?

(1) ΔABC ≅ ΔABD

(2) ΔABC ≅ ΔADB

(3) ΔABC ≅ ΔBAD

(4) ΔABC ≅ ΔBDA

Q 38. The sides of four triangles are given below :

(i) 20 cm, 22 cm, 24 cm

(ii) 15 cm, 32 cm, 37 cm

(iii) 11 cm, 60 cm, 61 cm

(iv) 19 cm, 40 cm, 41 cm

Which of them forms a right triangle ?

(1) (i)

(2) (ii)

(3) (iii)

(4) (iv)

Q 39. The angles of a quadrilateral are in the ratio 3 : 5 : 7 : 9. What is the difference between the least and the greatest angles of the quadrilateral ?

(1) 50⁰

(2) 60⁰

(3) 72⁰

(4) 90⁰

Q 40. The perimeter of a triangle is 12 cm. If all the three sides have lengths (in cm), in integers, then how many such different triangles are possible ?

(1) 2

(2) 3

(3) 4

(4) 5

Q 41. A godown is in the shape of a cuboid whose length, breadth and height are 56 m, 42 m and 10 m respectively. How many (maximum) cuboidal boxes each measuring 2.8 m × 2.5 m × 70 cm can be stored into the godown ?

(1) 2400

(2) 3600

(3) 4800

(4) 5400

Q 42. The circumference of the base of a right circular cylinder is 528 cm and its height is 2 m. What is the volume of the cylinder ? (Take π = 22/7)

(1) 2.2176 m³

(2) 3.3264 m³

(3) 4.4352 m³

(4) 6.6528 m³

Q 43. The area of a quadrilateral is 227.2 cm² and the length of the perpendiculars from the opposite vertices to a diagonal are 7.2 cm and 8.8 cm. What is the length of the diagonal ?

(1) 26.8 cm

(2) 28.4 cm

(3) 30.2 cm

(4) 32.6 cm

Q 44. If 5(3x + 4) – 8(6x + 7) = 9x – 8, then what is the value of (x² – 2x + 1) ?

(1) ⅔

(2) 4/9

(3) 5/3

(4) 25/9

Q 45. What is the value of a(a + b² + c) + b²(a² + b² + c²) – c(a + b²), when a = 1, b = –3 and c = –2 ?

(1) 138

(2) 154

(3) 162

(4) 176

Q 46. The expression (x – y) (x² + xy + y²) + (x + y) (x² – xy + y²) – (x + y) (x² – y²) is equal to

(1) x³ – y³ + xy(x + y)

(2) y³ – x³ + xy(y + x)

(3) x³ + y³ + xy(y – x)

(4) x³ + y³ + xy(x – y)

Q 47. What is the mean of the median, mode and range for the data given below ?

11, 25, 0, 8, 25, 30, 44, 50, 30, 18, 20, 17, 11, 9, 24, 25, 29

(1) 31

(2) 32

(3) 33

(4) 34

Q 48. A mathematical theorem is

(1) a statement that has been proven by logical arguments based on axioms.

(2) a statement which is always true and doesn’t need proof.

(3) a statement whose truth or falsity is not known.

(4) is a statement without sufficient evidence for proof.

Q 49. “Things which are equal to the same thing are equal to one another.” This axiom which is basis to arithmetic and algebra is given by

(1) Euclid

(2) Pythagoras

(3) Descartes

(4) Euler

Q 50. Which of the following can be used as assessment strategy to encourage interdisciplinary in Mathematics ?

A. Projects

B. Field trips

C. Anecdotal records

D. Olympiad

(1) A & B

(2) A & C

(3) B & C

(4) C & D

Q 51. Which method can be used to prove “The sum of two even integers is always even” ?

(1) Proof by induction

(2) Direct proof

(3) Proof by contradiction

(4) Counter positive proof

Q 52. Which of the following skills are promoted by mathematics at upper primary stage ?

A. Visualisation

B. Transposition

C. Memorisation

D. Generalisation

E. Estimation

(1) A, B, D, E

(2) A, B, C, D

(3) B, C, D, E

(4) A, C, D, E

Q 53. Which of the following tasks is least likely to develop critical thinking among students ?

(1) Evaluate 72 × 73 in three different ways and compare the result.

(2) Formulate any two situations to represent the equation 7x + 3 = 24.

(3) A student calculated the volume of a right circular cylinder of radius 3.5 cm and height 10 cm as 38.5 cm³. Where did she go wrong ?

(4) Calculate the volume of a right circular cylinder of radius 3.5 cm and height 10 cm.

Q 54. Which of the following aligns with the overall objective of achieving ‘Mathematics for All’ as per NCF 2005 ?

(1) It should be acknowledged that mathematics is meant for selected few students.

(2) Textbooks should only include problems of average difficulty.

(3) Contributions of mathematicians from different regions and different social groups should be highlighted.

(4) Mathematically talented students should be groomed in isolation.

Q 55. Which of the following is considered as a characteristic of an effective mathematics classroom ?

(1) Group work and group problem solving is discouraged.

(2) It is emphasized that mathematics is essentially a concrete subject.

(3) Multiple ways of approaching a problem are encouraged.

(4) Steps for solving a new problem are neatly demonstrated on the board by the teacher.

Q 56. Which of the following is a desirable practice in the context of teaching and learning of measurement of volume ?

(1) Begin by writing the formula of volume of a cube.

(2) Encourage precise calculation right from the beginning.

(3) Begin by introducing students to the volume of 2-D figures.

(4) Encourage students to figure out ways to calculate the volume of different objects.

Q 57. Which of the following is NOT true according to Piaget’s view of children’s understanding of space ?

(1) Progression of geometric ideas follows a definite order.

(2) Progression of Geometric ideas follows a historical rather than a logical order.

(3) Early understanding of space is formed by child’s sensory motor experiences.

(4) Co-ordination of different visual and tactile experiences is required for understanding projective space.

Q 58. If –12 × (–3) + [20 ÷ (–4) – (–24) ÷ 8] – [16 ÷ (–2)] = (–28 ÷ 7) + x, then the value of x is

(1) 29

(2) 39

(3) 46

(4) 47

Q 59. If an 8-digit number 30x0867y is divisible by 88, then what is the value of (3x + y) ?

(1) 4

(2) 5

(3) 6

(4) 7

Q 60. The value of

6⅔ ÷ 2½ × 3¾ – 5½ × 4¼ + 1⅔ (⅞ + ¾ × ⅔) is

(1) -11112

(2) 11112

(3) 612

(4) -612

Directions : Answer the following questions by selecting the correct/most appropriate options.

Q 61. ‘X’ is a chemical present in our stomach and is necessary for digestion of food. When ‘X’ is secreted in excess, it causes health problems like indigestion. ‘Y’ is a chemical used to treat this condition. What could be ‘X’ and ‘Y’ ?

(1) X is hydrochloric acid & Y is sodium carbonate.

(2) X is milk of magnesia & Y is hydrochloric acid.

(3) X is hydrochloric acid & Y is milk of magnesia.

(4) X is milk of magnesia & Y is ascorbic acid.

Q 62. In which of the following processes, Bacteria is NOT used ?

(1) Formation of curd

(2) Baking of bread

(3) Fermentation of Sugarcane juice

(4) Nitrogen fixation

Q 63. Which of the following is different from the rest ?

(1) Deforestation

(2) Desertification

(3) Erosion

(4) Conservation

Q 64. Which of the following statements is NOT correct ?

(1) Digestion is a chemical change.

(2) Photosynthesis is a chemical change.

(3) Respiration is a chemical change.

(4) Crystallisation is a chemical change.

Q 65. Which of the following represents an ascending order as per the size of particles ?

(1) Rock, Clay, Sand, Gravel, Silt

(2) Clay, Silt, Sand, Gravel, Rock

(3) Silt, Clay, Sand, Gravel, Rock

(4) Rock, Gravel, Sand, Silt, Clay

Q 66. The function of gills in the fish is to

(1) take in oxygen from air

(2) absorb nutrients present in water

(3) absorb dissolved oxygen from water

(4) excrete waste into water

Q 67. Which of the following can be used to complete an electric circuit if one runs out of connecting wire ?

(1) A paper strip

(2) A rubber belt

(3) A wooden stick

(4) A blade

Q 68. Manjula is observing her image in a plane mirror. The distance between herself and the mirror is 5 m. She moves 1 m towards the mirror. The distance between herself and her image now is

(1) 1 m

(2) 4 m

(3) 8 m

(4) 10 m

Q 69. A pendulum oscillates 30 times in 3 seconds. Choose the correct statement from among the following :

(1) It’s time period is 10 s and frequency 3Hz.

(2) It’s time period is 0.1 s and frequency is 10 Hz.

(3) It’s time period is 10 s and frequency is 0.3 Hz.

(4) It’s time period is 0.3 s and frequency is 0.3 Hz.

Q 70. Identify the incorrect statement.

(1) Ball bearings are used to increase friction between parts of a machine.

(2) Friction between two surfaces in contact can never be eliminated on earth.

(3) Rolling friction is less than sliding friction.

(4) The friction force on an object moving through a fluid depends upon its shape.

Q 71. Which of the following statements is/are correct ?

A. Iron can replace zinc from zinc sulphate solution.

B. Zinc can replace copper from copper sulphate solution.

C. Copper can replace Iron from Iron sulphate solution.

(1) Only A

(2) Only B

(3) A and B

(4) B and C

Q 72. Identify the correct statement from among the following :

(1) Clinical Thermometer can be used to measure the temperature of boiling liquids.

(2) Room thermometers have a range from 30 ºC to 100 ºC.

(3) Laboratory thermometers have a range from 35 ºC to 42 ºC.

(4) The range of a laboratory thermometer is greater than that of a clinical thermometer.

Q 73. Identify the incorrect statements.

(1) The calorific value of Kerosene is more than that of Coal.

(2) The calorific value of coal is more than that of Wood.

(3) The calorific value of Biogas is more than that of LPG.

(4) The calorific value of CNG is more than that of Diesel.

Q 74. A bus travels at a speed of 50 km/h for 12 minutes & then at a speed of 40 km/h for the next 18 minutes. Total distance covered by the bus during this time is –

(1) 20 km

(2) 22 km

(3) 24 km

(4) 28 km

Q 75. Identify the incorrect statement from among the following :

(1) The motion of earth around its axis is periodic motion.

(2) The motion of light is rectilinear motion.

(3) The motion of plucked string of a sitar is oscillatory motion.

(4) All periodic motions are circular motions.

Q 76. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding image formation in plane minor ?

A. Image is erect.

B. Image is real.

C. Image is laterally inverted. D. The image size is same that of object.

(1) A, B, C

(2) A, C, D

(3) B, C, D

(4) A, B, D

Q 77. Which of the following is a NOT true w.r.t. the nature of Science ?

(1) Science is an interdisciplinary area of learning.

(2) Science is always tentative.

(3) Science promotes scepticism.

(4) Science is equivalent to a set of facts.

Q 78. As per NCF 2005, good Science education should be the

(1) true to science teacher

(2) true to the child

(3) true to the environment of the school.

(4) true to the classroom culture

Q 79. Which of the following validities of a good science education curriculum is satisfied by Activity and Experiment ?

(1) Cognitive

(2) Historical

(3) Environmental

(4) Process

Q 80. Anu took her class VIII children to field trip. Which of the following could be the most appropriate objective/s for this activity ?

A. It encourages interaction among children.

B. It promotes process skills through concrete experiences.

C. It enhances observation skills among the children.

D. It breaks the monotony of class as well as of teacher.

(1) A, B and C

(2) B and C only

(3) A, C and D

(4) A and C only

Q 81. Which of the following should NOT be an objective of science education at the upper primary level ?

(1) Nurturing the natural curiosity of children.

(2) Inculcating the values of co-operation and concern for life.

(3) Cultivating scientific temper.

(4) Emphasising the textbook definitions of concepts.

Q 82. Which of the following can enhance critical thinking among children ?

(1) Asking children to read science textbook in the class.

(2) Asking children to read the extended learning given at the end of the textbook.

(3) Asking children to discuss among themselves in groups followed by sharing in large group.

(4) Demonstration of experiments by the teacher.

Q 83. A teacher begins the class by demonstrating the chemical test of starch in a given sample of food. The cognitive process associated with the underlined word in the above statement is

(1) Creating

(2) Analysing

(3) Applying

(4) Understanding

Q 84. Which of the following activities will NOT provide for active learning among children?

(1) Establishing science club

(2) Organisation of field trip

(3) Developing a science corner

(4) Listening to a lecture in class

Q 85. Which of the following is used for finding the learning gaps of learners in Science ?

A. Concept map

B. Anecdotal record

C. Portfolio

D. Term end achievement test

(1) D only

(2) A and D

(3) A, B and C

(4) B, C and D

Q 86. Which of the following tools is based on the technique of observation ?

(1) Oral test

(2) Written test

(3) Paper-pencil test

(4) Anecdotal record

Q 87. Which of the following statements are correct ?

A. Pashmina shawl is made from hair of goats.

B. Angora is a type of wool obtained from Rabbits.

C. Camel wool is used to make carpets.

D. Pashmina wool is obtained from rabbits.

(1) A & C

(2) A & B

(3) B & C

(4) C & D

Q 88. Identity the animal on the basis of features listed below :

A. Long back bone

B. Many muscles

C. Body curves into many loops for moving forward

(1) Snake

(2) Earthworm

(3) Snail

(4) Hook worm

Q 89. Which of the following statement is NOT true ?

(1) All arteries carry oxygen rich blood.

(2) All arteries carry oxygen from heart to other parts.

(3) Arteries have thick walls.

(4) Arteries have elastic walls.

Q 90. Which of the following represents correct matching order ?

A. Acetic acid I. Curd

B. Lactic acid II. Spinach

C. Oxalic acid III. Citrus fruits

D. Ascorbic acid IV. Vinegar

(1) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

(2) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

(3) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

(4) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

IMPORTANT : Candidates have to do Question Nos. 31 to 90 EITHER from Part – II (Mathematics and Science) OR from Part – III (Social Studies / Social Science).

PART – III

SOCIAL STUDIES / SOCIAL SCIENCE

Directions : Answer the following questions by selecting the correct/most appropriate options.

Q 31. Which of the following are block mountains ?

(1) Himalayas

(2) Appalachians

(3) Ural

(4) Vosges

Q 32. Statement (A) : Only one side of the moon is visible to us on Earth.

Statement (B) : The moon moves around the Earth in about 27 days and takes exactly the same time to complete 1 spin.

Select the correct option from the given alternatives.

(1) Both (A) and (B) are true and (B) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (B) are true, but (B) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (B) is false. (4) (A) is false, but (B) is true.

Q 33. Consider the statements A, B, C on metamorphic rocks and choose the correct answer :

A. When igneous and sedimentary rocks are subjected to heat and pressure they change to metamorphic rocks.

B. Metamorphic rocks melt to form molten magma when subjected to great heat and pressure.

C. Marble is a metamorphic rock.

(1) B and C are correct and A is incorrect.

(2) A and B are correct and C is incorrect.

(3) A, B, C all are correct.

(4) A and C are correct and B is incorrect.

Q 34. On entering which layer of the atmosphere from space do the meteorites burn up ?

(1) Mesosphere

(2) Thermosphere

(3) Exosphere

(4) Stratosphere

Q 35. Transhumance is related to

(1) Movement of people

(2) Closely built area of houses

(3) Artificial enclosures for keeping small house plants.

(4) Places where settlements develops

Q 36. Consider the statements A and B on permanent winds and choose the correct option :

A. These winds blow constantly throughout the year in a particular direction.

B. Westerlies and Easterlies are examples of these winds.

(1) A is true, B is false.

(2) A is false, B is true.

(3) Both A and B are true.

(4) Both A and B are false.

Q 37. Campos in Brazil and Llanos in Venezuela are examples of

(1) Temperate grasslands

(2) Tundra type of vegetation

(3) Tropical grasslands

(4) Mediterranean vegetation

Q 38. Consider the Statements A and B about ‘climate’ and choose the correct answer.

A. Climate refers to the day to day changes in the atmosphere.

B. Climate of a place is affected only by its altitude and relief.

(1) A is true, B is false.

(2) A is false, B is true.

(3) Both A and B are true.

(4) Both A and B are false.

Q 39. Identify the source of energy from the given features A and B :

A. It is a conventional source of energy.

B. This source of energy is released when crude oil is brought to surface.

(1) Biogas

(2) Natural gas

(3) Geo-thermal energy

(4) Wax

Q 40. India’s research station ‘Maitri’ is located in

(1) Australia

(2) Antarctica

(3) Europe

(4) Asia

Q 41. Which of the following is not true for minerals ?

(1) They are naturally occuring substances.

(2) They have a definite chemical composition.

(3) They are formed in different types of geological environments.

(4) All minerals are non-metallic.

Q 42. Match the following :

a. Narmada Valley i. Early republic

b. Vajji ii. Hunting and gathering

c. Garo Hills iii. Cities about 2500 years ago

d. Ganga Valley iv. The first cities

e. Indus and its tributaries v. Early agriculture

	a	b	c	d	e
(1)	i	ii	iii	iv	v
(2)	v	i	ii	iv	iii
(3)	ii	i	v	iii	iv
(4)	v	iv	iii	ii	i

Q 43. Below are two statements (A) and (B) in the context of contemporary debates on ‘dates and periods’ of Indian history.

Statement (A) : A Periodisation like ‘Hindu – Muslim – British’ is appropriate as the religion of the rulers has been the only important historical change.

Statement (B) : It is problematic to assign precise dates and time spans to ‘historical processes’ that happened over a period of time.

(1) Both (A) and (B) are correct and (B) is the correct interpretation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (B) are correct, but (B) is not the correct interpretation of (A).

(3) (A) is correct, but (B) is wrong.

(4) (A) is wrong, but (B) is right.

Q 44. Below are the two statements in the context of new popular Indian art in the nineteenth century.

Statement (A) : Many painting mocked at the changes they saw around, ridiculing the new tastes of those who spoke in English and warned against women moving out of their homes.

Statement (B) : Images were used to express nationalist ideas and inspire people against British rule.

(1) Both (A) and (B) are correct and (B) is the correct interpretation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (B) are correct, but (B) is not the correct interpretation of (A).

(3) (A) is correct, but (B) is wrong.

(4) (A) is wrong, but (B) is right.

Q 45. Which of the following may be considered as a primary source for understanding early humans in India ?

(1) Kangra style painting

(2) Girnar rock inscription

(3) Padshahnama painting

(4) Rock paintings of Madhya Pradesh

Q 46. Children in pre-British times were taught

(1) In state institutions.

(2) By payment of a fixed fee.

(3) Throughout the year except harvest time when they worked in the fields.

(4) For assessment through an annual exam.

Q 47. Below are two statements (A) and (B) in the context of emergence of nation states in Europe in 18-19^th centuries.

Statement (A) : Till the eighteenth century, people in Europe saw themselves as nation states.

Statement (B) : A consciousness was created in the early nineteenth century among the people that each linguistic community was a separate nation.

(1) Both (A) and (B) are correct and (B) is the correct interpretation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (B) are correct but (B) is not the correct interpretation of (A).

(3) (A) is correct, but (B) is wrong.

(4) (A) is wrong, but (B) is correct.

Q 48. BCE stands for

(1) Before Christian Era

(2) Before Common Era

(3) Before Caesar Era

(4) Before Contemporary Era

Q 49. How do we know today that ostriches were found in India during the Palaeolithic period?

(1) We have vivid description of these birds in the writings of that time.

(2) Large quantities of ostrich egg shells were found at Patne in Maharasthra.

(3) We have archived oral memories on ostriches in Delhi’s National Museum.

(4) These are described in the memories of foreign travellers.

Q 50. How did the Harappan civilization come to an end ?

A. It appears as if the rulers lost control.

B. There could have been deforestation in the area.

C. There were floods in the entire area of the civilization.

D. The rivers dried up probably. Choose the correct explanation.

(1) A, B, C

(2) A, B, D

(3) A, C, D

(4) B, C, D

Q 51. Under the Mahayana Buddhism

(1) Buddha’s presence was shown in sculpture by using certain signs.

(2) Statues of Buddha were made.

(3) Bodhisattvas were not accepted as they were yet to attain enlightenment.

(4) Mathura and Taxila declined as centres of sculpture.

Q 52. What is true in the context of administration and consolidation under the Khaljis and Tughlaqs ?

(1) Large parts of the subcontinent remained under the control of the Delhi Sultans.

(2) The forested areas in the gangetic plain were penetrated for the first time.

(3) It was difficult to control distant provinces like Bengal from Delhi.

(4) Alauddin Khalji and Muhammad Tughlaq forced their control in the gangetic plains for a longer duration.

Q 53. Which of the following statements is incorrect in the historical reconstruction of tribal people ?

(1) Contemporary historians and travellers give scanty information about tribes.

(2) Most tribal groups kept written records.

(3) Tribal people preserved rich customs and oral traditions.

(4) Tribal societies depended on each other for their diverse needs.

Q 54. How did the British consolidate their control over India after the Revolt of 1857 ?

(1) By transfer of powers of the East India company to the British crown for a more responsible management of Indian affairs.

(2) By recruiting more soldiers from Awadh, Bihar, Central India and South India.

(3) By making policies to protect the landless and peasants.

(4) By appeasement and safeguarding property rights.

Q 55. Which of the following NOT a feature of Representative Democracy ?

(1) Representatives chosen through elections.

(2) Decision making in the hands of the representatives.

(3) Direct participation of people in decision making.

(4) Franchise rights to people.

Q 56. Which particular region in India is known as the ‘Little Tibet’ ?

(1) Ladakh

(2) Arunachal Pradesh

(3) Sikkim

(4) Himachal Pradesh

Q 57. What is the appellate system in India ?

(1) provision for applying for judicial services.

(2) provision for appeal in the Parliament against a court order.

(3) provision for the Executive Head of the State acting as the highest appellate authority.

(4) provision for appeal to a higher court against the decision of a lower court.

Q 58. Which of the following is NOT a feature of Peninsular Plateau ?

(1) It lies to the South of Northern plains.

(2) Aravali Hills border it on the North-West side.

(3) It is rich in minerals like coal and iron-ore.

(4) Rivers Mahanadi and Krishna are some of the west flowing rivers in the plateau.

Q 59. Which of the following statements about Africa is correct ?

(1) A large part of Africa lies in the Southern Hemisphere.

(2) It is the only continent through which the Tropic of Cancer, Equator and Tropic of Capricorn pass.

(3) Gobi desert is located in this continent.

(4) It is separated from Asia by Ural mountains on the west.

Q 60. The Southern parts of India particularly Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh receive rainfall in Autumn because

(1) winds move back from the mainland to the Bay of Bengal.

(2) winds blow from Arabian Sea to Bay of Bengal.

(3) winds blow from Bay of Bengal to Arabian Sea.

(4) winds move back from mainland to Arabian Sea.

Q 61. What is known as the Costa Rican approach in the area of public health ?

(1) equal spending on health and defence.

(2) defence budget to be more than health budget.

(3) not having an army to maintain to be able to spend more on public health.

(4) spending on the health of the armymen.

Q 62. In 1997, the Supreme Court in India formulated the Vishakha guidelines to protect women from sexual harassment _________.

(1) in vehicles

(2) at work places

(3) in marital relationship

(4) on streets

Q 63. Who amongst the following appoints the governor of a state in India ?

(1) Members of the Legislative Assembly

(2) Members of the Parliament

(3) Central Government

(4) Attorney General

Q 64. Who among the following is not a rural administration officer ?

(1) Patwari

(2) Municipal ward councillor

(3) Land record officer

(4) Lekhpal

Q 65. What are the D.K. Basu guidelines which were laid down by the Supreme Court of India ?

(1) guidelines related to prevention of sexual harassment at workplace.

(2) guidelines related to protection of children from hazardous employment.

(3) guidelines related to protection of women from domestic violence.

(4) guidelines related to the procedures to be followed by police for arrest, detention and interrogation.

Q 66. The Forest Rights Act, 2006 in its title recognizes the rights of which category ?

(1) Scheduled Tribes

(2) Scheduled Castes

(3) Economically Backward Classes

(4) Most Backward Classes

Q 67. An example of secondary source is

(1) The Constitution of India

(2) Census Report, 2011

(3) Record of Registration of Births and Deaths.

(4) Our Pasts (I) – NCERT textbook in history for class 6

Q 68. Consider the two statements below :

A. Examinations are artificial situations created for the convenience of the system and not for the individual learner.

B. A shift in emphasis on testing competencies and away from memory would reduce stress in social science classrooms.

(1) Only statement A is true.

(2) Both statements A and B are true.

(3) Statement A is true but statement B is false.

(4) Statement B is true but statement A is false.

Q 69. The main aim of a social science teacher should be

(1) to develop competition among students.

(2) to develop an awareness of connections between all elements that shape society.

(3) to make learners memorize the socio-historical facts.

(4) to prepare learners in maintaining the status quo in the society and accept all decisions of the government.

Q 70. The primary purpose of assessment in social science is

(1) To recall textbook knowledge and reduce exam stress for all learners.

(2) Categorising and labelling learners.

(3) To highlight social differences amongst the learners.

(4) To give learners feedback and setting standards for them to strive towards.

Q 71. Films can be used as an effective pedagogic tool in the social science classrooms because

A. films can bring the world into the classroom.

B. films inspire us with the power of discovering the unseen and the unheard contexts.

C. films bring stories, voices and images that in life may be far removed from us.

D. films are objective medium which can encourage learners to frame their views in a singular manner.

Choose the correct option.

(1) A, B, C

(2) A, B, D

(3) A, C, D

(4) B, C, D

Q 72. Which of the following statements is correct in the context of using map in a classroom?

A. Map is a socio-political construct.

B. From time immemorial, ‘North’ has always been shown at the top of a map in all socio-political contexts.

C. Map is a three dimensional device whereas we live in a two dimensional world.

D. Map is an aid to develop a ‘sense of time’ in learners.

Choose the correct option.

(1) Only A

(2) Only B

(3) Only C and D

(4) A, B and C

Q 73. In an effort to connect learning with learner’s life, the social science teacher needs to

A. intentionally and explicitly includes diverse cultural perspectives in the subject content.

B. point out the personal and family backgrounds of the learners in the class.

C. give learners opportunity to share their examples and experiences in the class.

Choose the correct option.

(1) A and B are correct.

(2) A and C are correct.

(3) B and C are correct.

(4) Only B is correct.

Q 74. While teaching history, ‘genealogy chart’ is used to

A. Represent the growth and development of an empire or a dynasty.

B. Show sequence and functional relationships.

C. Provide a chronological framework.

D. Develop a sense of space in learners. Choose the correct option.

(1) A, B and C are correct.

(2) A, C and D are correct.

(3) B, C and D are correct.

(4) Only C and D are correct.

Q 75. What adaptations in the teaching -learning process should a social science teacher make while engaging with learners who are visually challenged ?

A. Speak clearly and loudly with appropriate pauses and reiterations.

B. Use a variety of visually appealing worksheets.

C. Give verbal clues to create opportunities to imagine.

D. Introduce tactile materials during class room discussions.

Choose the correct option.

(1) A and B only

(2) A, C and D only

(3) B only

(4) B, C and D only

Q 76. Consider the statements on project method in social science teaching :

A. It is inspired by pragmatic perspective.

B. It turns learners into a discoverer.

C. It is entirely a teacher-centered method.

D. It allows learning through self directed activity.

Choose the correct option :

(1) A and B are correct.

(2) A, B and C are correct.

(3) A, B and D are correct.

(4) A, C and D are correct.

Q 77. A social science teacher willing to enquire with a constructivist perspective would view the learners as

A. Curious to explore on social processes.

B. Imaginative on the basis of sources.

C. Trying to suggest solutions to problems.

D. Postponing discussions on controversial issues for higher education level.

Choose the correct option.

(1) A and B only

(2) A, B and C only

(3) A, B and D only

(4) B, C and D only

Q 78. Which of the following may be helpful towards making social science curriculum more inclusive ?

A. Engendering the curriculum

B. Uniform instructions and a fixed teaching way in the classroom.

C. Engaging with different sources – official as well as of subaltern contexts.

D. One exam paper fitting all learners.

Choose the correct option.

(1) A and B only

(2) A and C only

(3) B and D only

(4) B, C and D only

Q 79. Why should students learn to be critical ?

(1) To point out flaws and being cynical about everything.

(2) To maintain the status quo in society.

(3) To understand how issues are related to their own lives.

(4) To appreciate uniform, homogeneous perspective.

Q 80. Select the example that represents diversity from the following examples :

(1) Saroj got the chance to go to school while Nirmala did not get the chance to go to school.

(2) Allen belongs to a poor family, while Simon’s family is very rich.

(3) Raghu does not want to include Suresh in the football team because he comes from

a particular community of society.

(4) Paritosh known good Bangla; whereas Suchita speakes Hindi.

Q 81. A social science excursion trip in a school involved a visit to Ziro, Bombdila, Namdapha National Park, Tawang and Leisang village. On which medium could you ask the students to mark the two states they had visited ?

(1) Mizoram and Meghalaya on a map

(2) Manipur and Sikkim on a timeline

(3) Arunachal Pradesh and Manipur on a map

(4) Nagaland and Tripura on a time line

Q 82. Contemporary understanding of social science pedagogy encourages teachers to do all of the following, except :

(1) Encourage learners to learn by reading local experiences of others and finding about their own.

(2) Promoting all learners to give identical answers to questions so that all improve.

(3) Appreciate learners ability to make questions on the given subject content and accepting it as a valid test of learning.

(4) Give opportunities to learners to use their knowledge developed in the classroom at concrete situations.

Q 83. The following is not an example of gender stereotyping :

(1) Only boys being encouraged to participate in the football tournament.

(2) Only the girls in class are asked to decorate the class boards.

(3) While boys try to monopolise the class discussions, attention is given to both girls and boys to encourage participation.

(4) Boys and girls are made to sit in separate rows for ensuring discipline in class.

Q 84. Effective teaching of social science would require :

A. Perpetuating all cultural practices of the past.

B. Critical analysis of literary texts, howsoever old they may be.

C. Discarding all sources which are non-textual.

D. Giving primacy to triangulation of sources.

Choose the correct option.

(1) A and C only

(2) B and C only

(3) B and D only

(4) C and D only

Q 85. Sensitivity on ‘social justice’ in a classroom can be encouraged by :

A. Incorporating contemporary excerpts from people’s struggles and stories of advocacy during classroom discussions.

B. Keeping the understanding of the historical context of the Indian social milieu in the context of unequal power equations.

C. Engaging in classroom discussions on the constitutional provisions on social justice.

D. Prompt corporal punishment on the defaulting children.

Choose the correct option.

(1) A and B

(2) A, B and C

(3) B, C and D

(4) C and D

Q 86. Pedagogy of history would try to :

A. Construct history on the basis of sources.

B. Trace continuity and change in the social processes in history.

C. History engage with differences in interpretations and accept the dominant community’s views

D. History view events by situating them within socio-political contexts of a particular period.

Choose the correct option.

(1) A, B, C only

(2) A, B, D only

(3) A, C, D only

(4) B, C, D only

Q 87. The right to pollution free air has been recognized as part of which particular Fundamental Right in India ?

(1) Equality

(2) Life

(3) Justice

(4) Freedom

Q 88. Who coined the phrase ‘Unity in Diversity’ to describe India ?

(1) Jawaharlal Nehru

(2) B.R. Ambedkar

(3) M.K. Gandhi

(4) Rajendra Prasad

Q 89. How many members in Lok Sabha are nominated and not elected ?

(1) 4 (four)

(2) 1 (one)

(3) 2 (two)

(4) 0 (none)

Q 90. In 2006, the form of government in Nepal changed from Monarchy to __________.

(1) Autocracy

(2) Tyranny

(3) Democracy

(4) Oligarchy

PART – IV

LANGUAGE – I

ENGLISH

IMPORTANT : Candidates should attempt questions from Part – IV (Q. No. 91-120), if they have opted for ENGLISH as LANGUAGE – I only.

Directions : Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow (Q. Nos. 91 – 99) by selecting the correct/most appropriate options :

Learning a language under any circumstances requires hard work and concentration. However, the circumstances can make a difference in both quality and quantity. Most foreign language students learn in a classroom, from a text-book. In a classroom, language learning can be controlled so that all the necessary structures are taught. Highly motivated students can thus learn the language efficiently and quickly. Learning on the streets and in the markets from experience and need can be effective although the student learns only what he happens to need, in a haphazard way.

Some language students find this real-life situation more meaningful because the students’ success in fulfilling their needs depends on their language ability. However, shop-keepers are more likely to be tolerant of incorrect grammar than classroom teachers, so mispronunciations and errors will not matter much. Nevertheless, the rewards are different for the type of language learning situations. They are immediate (goods, bought in a store) in the real-life but delayed until a quiz or oral recital for the classroom learner.

The kind of language learnt in each setting differs too. In the classroom, the student is more likely to learn the grammatical language of educated people. The language learnt out of necessity often lacks the fine details of the classroom variety and might include informal expressions such as slang. The people learning on the street must be easily understood. Therefore, they might actually sound more like native speakers – although not necessarily educated people. So a combination of classroom instruction and the experience of using language in the street will result in the best language learning of all.

Q 91. Language needs of real-life situations are fulfilled by :

(1) studying text-books carefully.

(2) learning the language structures.

(3) learning on the streets.

(4) learning proper pronunciation.

Q 92. Which of the following statements is NOT true ?

(1) Shopkeepers are intolerant of incorrect pronunciation.

(2) Real-life situations are more meaningful for language learning.

(3) Classroom learning can be tested in an oral recital.

(4) Foreign students learn language mostly from text-books.

Q 93. Study the following statements :

(a) At school one learns the language of educated people.

(b) Language learnt on the street includes the use of slang.

(1) (a) is right and (b) is wrong.

(2) (a) is wrong and (b) is right.

(3) Both (a) and (b) are right.

(4) Both (a) and (b) are wrong.

Q 94. Which part of speech is the underlined word in the following sentence ?

The kind of language learnt in each setting differs too.

(1) Pronoun

(2) Determiner

(3) Conjunction

(4) Preposition

Q 95. Study the following phrase. Which part of speech is the underlined word ?

‘but delayed until a quiz …’

(1) Pronoun

(2) Determiner

(3) Conjunction

(4) Preposition

Q 96. What does the word ‘motivated’ mean in the following phrase ?

‘Highly motivated students can thus ……..’

(1) intelligent

(2) resourceful

(3) muddled

(4) interested

Q 97. ‘…… in a haphazard way.’

The word ‘haphazard’ means

(1) dangerous

(2) unorganized

(3) safe

(4) proper

Q 98. The best place to correctly and quickly learn a foreign language is :

(1) only the classroom.

(2) only the market place.

(3) both the classroom and the market place.

(4) home.

Q 99. A text-book :

(1) controls language learning.

(2) motivates the students.

(3) teaches what a student needs.

(4) is an inexpensive tool of learning.

Directions : Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow (Q. Nos. 100 – 105) by selecting the correct/most appropriate options :

Great, wide, beautiful, wonderful world, With the wonderful water around you curled, And the wonderful grass upon your breast World, you are beautifully drest.

The wonderful air is over me, And the wonderful wind is shaking the tree, It walks on the water, and whirls the mills, And talks to itself on the tops of the hills.

You friendly Earth, how far do you go, With the wheat – fields that nod and the rivers that flow

With cities and gardens, and cliffs and isles, And people upon you for thousands of miles ?

Ah ! You are so great and I am so small, I tremble to think of you, world, at all;

And yet when I said my prayers today, A whisper inside me seemed to say,

‘You are more than the Earth, though you are such a dot,

You can love and think, and the Earth cannot !’

Q 100. The cities, gardens, cliffs and isles show that the Earth is :

(1) huge

(2) friendly

(3) small

(4) well populated

Q 101. In the extract the poet has compared :

(1) Man with the Earth.

(2) World with the Earth.

(3) World with the air.

(4) the Earth with the air.

Q 102. Mood of the speaker in all of these lines is :

(1) serious

(2) joyous

(3) sad

(4) introspective

Q 103. The figure of speech used in the first stanza of the extract is :

(1) Simile

(2) Synecdoche

(3) Onomatopoeia

(4) Personification

Q 104. The figure of speech used in the phrase ‘and whirls the mills’ is :

(1) Simile

(2) Synecdoche

(3) Onomatopoeia

(4) Personification

Q 105. The beautiful dress worn by the Earth is made of :

(1) mills and the hills.

(2) gardens and wheat-fields.

(3) water and grass.

(4) mountains and forests.

Q 106. A teacher asks her learners to collect words / phrases on various aspects they see and notice in their markets and streets. Later, the learners write the words and phrases according to the category and discuss them in the class. What is this practice known as ?

(1) Topic words learning

(2) Genre based words

(3) Active vocabulary

(4) Thematic vocabulary learning

Q 107. What does CLIL stand for ?

(1) Content Language Inter Learning

(2) Content and Language based Interesting Learning

(3) Content and Language Integrated Learning

(4) Context for Language Integrated Learning

Q 108. Which of the following statements is correct ?

(1) Receptive vocabulary are words we speak and productive vocabulary are words we hear.

(2) Receptive vocabulary are words we recognize when we hear or see and productive vocabulary are words we speak or write.

(3) Receptive vocabulary are words we discourse with people and productive vocabulary are words in written text.

(4) Words from other languages are receptive vocabulary and words from native languages are productive vocabulary.

Q 109. A teacher divides her class into groups of four and reads out a text of about six sentences. Learners listen to and jot down important words and phrases. The teacher reads out the text the second time. Then learners discuss in groups the jotted down words and recreate the text nearer to the one read out by the teacher. What is this task know as ?

(1) Composition Dictation

(2) Mutual Dictation

(3) Punctuation Dictation

(4) Real Dictation

Q 110. Intensive reading refers to

(1) reading a text for detailed information.

(2) reading a text for pleasure.

(3) reading a text for editing.

(4) reading a text for someone else.

Q 111. Knowing a word means

(1) how, where and when it is used.

(2) how the word is spelt.

(3) who speaks the word.

(4) to know to write the word.

Q 112. Which typology of question does the following question belong to ?

Imagine you are the narrator of the story. Write an entry in your diary about your experiences in about 100 words.

(1) Informative question

(2) Inferential question

(3) Cloze question

(4) Extrapolative question

Q 113. Poetry teaching is _____.

(1) to learn words and phrases.

(2) to learn poetic devices.

(3) for enjoyment and appreciation.

(4) to write a critical commentary.

Q 114. Learning outcomes aim at

(1) output oriented learning

(2) achieving maximum levels of learning

(3) achieving minimum levels of learning

(4) ensuring all the competencies are acquired by learners.

Q 115. A teacher brings a newspaper to her class VIII students and asks them to find some advertisements. She then asks them to list out how advertisements are designed and what an advertisement contains. What is the newspaper here ?

(1) For reading.

(2) An instrument of language learning.

(3) A technique of language learning.

(4) Materials for language learning.

Q 116. National Curriculum Framework 2005 assigns ‘supplementary’ and ‘complimentary’ roles to English language. This means that

(1) English language teaching should support learning of other languages and subjects.

(2) English language teaching has nothing to do with teaching learning of other languages.

(3) English language teaching is a hindrance to learning of other languages.

(4) English language teaching violates the mother tongue based language education.

Q 117. A reader uses her prior knowledge, makes semantic cues and syntactic cues then moves to other more specific information. What model of reading the reader here adopts ?

(1) Bottom up model

(2) Top down model

(3) Interactive model

(4) Whole language model

Q 118. Drilling is a teaching-learning technique or a strategy in _____.

(1) Constructivist language teaching

(2) Structuralism

(3) Communicative learning teaching

(4) Lexical approach

Q 119. Which of the following statements is TRUE of language learning ?

(1) First language interferes in the learning of second language.

(2) First language supports the learning of second language.

(3) Language learning has nothing to do with content learning.

(4) Every language is different and learning of languages is also discreet.

Q 120. Multilingualism as a resource in education aims at

(1) making use of languages of learners for teaching-learning.

(2) making learners learn as many languages as possible.

(3) using classical languages for teaching-learning.

(4) enabling to learn English language for jobs and mother tongue for culture.

PART – V

LANGUAGE – II

ENGLISH

IMPORTANT : Candidates should attempt questions from Part – V (Q. No. 121-150), if they have opted for ENGLISH as LANGUAGE – II only.

Directions : Read the passage given below and answer the questions (Q. Nos. 121 – 128) that follow by selecting the correct/most appropriate options :

As science progresses, superstitions ought to grow less. On the whole, that is true. However, it is surprising how superstitions linger on. If we are tempted to look down on savage tribes for holding such ideas, we should remember that even today, among most civilised nations, a great many equally stupid superstitions exist and are believed in by a great many people.

Some people will not sit down thirteen at a table; or will not like to start anything important on a Friday; or refuse to walk under a ladder. Many people buy charms and talismans because they think they will bring them luck. Even in civilised nations today, many laws are made on the basis of principles which are just as much unproved. For instance, it is often held as a principle that white people are by nature superior to people of other colours. The ancient Greeks believed that they were superior to the people of Northern and Western Europe. The only way to see if there is anything in such a principle is to make scientific studies of a number of white and black and brown people under different conditions of life and find out just what they can and cannot achieve.

It is, however, true that the increase of scientific knowledge does reduce superstition and also baseless guessing and useless arguments and practices. Civilised people do not argue and get angry about what water is composed of. The composition of water is known, and there is no argument about it.

Q 121. We should not despise the savage tribes because :

(1) they do not believe in science.

(2) they indulge in useless arguments.

(3) they have stopped being superstitious.

(4) we are no less superstitious than they are.

Q 122. Which of the following has a scientific basis for it ?

(1) We should not walk under a ladder.

(2) Number thirteen is inauspicious.

(3) Talismans and charms always bring luck.

(4) Fridays are as good as other days.

Q 123. Who believe in superstitions ?

(1) All civilised nations.

(2) Only some civilised nations.

(3) Only some tribals.

(4) All tribals and some civilized nations.

Q 124. Study the following statements :

(a) Ancient Greeks were superior to other European nations.

(b) Science helps us fight superstitions.

(1) (a) is right and (b) is wrong.

(2) (a) is wrong and (b) is right.

(3) Both (a) and (b) are right.

(4) Both (a) and (b) are wrong.

Q 125. Which part of speech is the underlined word in the following sentence ?

On the whole that is true.

(1) Determiner

(2) Pronoun

(3) Conjunction

(4) Preposition

Q 126. Identify the part of speech of the underlined word in the following sentence.

It is often held that as a principle.

(1) Pronoun

(2) Adverb

(3) Adjective

(4) Preposition

Q 127. Fill in the blank in the following sentence.

_____ is opposite in meaning to the word, ‘superior’.

(1) Higher

(2) Prior

(3) Inferior

(4) Lower

Q 128. The statement which best sums up the passage is :

(1) Superstitions disappear with the advancement of science.

(2) Irrational beliefs decline with the advancement of science.

(3) Civilized nations are no less superstitions than the savage tribes.

(4) We are very different from the savage nations in our beliefs.

Directions : Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow

(Q. Nos. 129-135) by selecting the correct / most appropriate options.

If asked, “What matters are related to health i.e. health decisions ?” most of us would answer – hospitals, doctors and pills. Yet we are all making a whole range of decisions about our health which go beyond this limited area of doctors, pills etc. For example, whether or not to smoke, take exercise, wear a seat belt, drive a motor bike, drink alcohol regularly etc. The way we reach decisions and form attitudes about our health is only just beginning to be understood.

The main paradox is why people consistently do things which are known to be very hazardous. Two interesting examples of this are smoking and not wearing seat belts. Addiction makes smokers keep on smoking and whether to wear a seat belt or not is affected by safety considerations. Taken together both these examples show how people reach decisions about their health. Understanding this process is crucial. Only then can we effectively change public attitude towards voluntary activities like smoking.

Smokers run the risk of contracting heart disease, several times more as compared to non-smokers. Even lung cancer. Despite extensive press campaigns which have regularly told smokers and car drivers the grave risks they are running, the number of smokers and non-wearers of seat belts has remained much the same. Although the numbers of deaths from road accidents and smoking are well publicized, they have aroused little public interest.

If we give smokers the real figures of deaths caused by smoking, will it affect their views on the dangers of smoking ? Unfortunately not. Many of the real figures are in the form of probable estimates, and evidence shows that people are very bad at understanding this kind of information.

Q 129. Why does a common man choose to wear a seat belt ?

(1) There is a law for it.

(2) He wants to protect himself.

(3) It is fitted in the car.

(4) For fear of the policeman.

Q 130. Study the following statements :

(a) Though it is very dangerous, some people don’t quit smoking.

(b) Whether or not to drink alcohol is not a health decision.

(1) (a) is right and (b) is wrong.

(2) (a) is wrong and (b) is right.

(3) Both (a) and (b) are right.

(4) Both (a) and (b) are wrong.

Q 131. Which of the following pieces of advice can be easily ignored by the people ?

(1) Don’t smoke.

(2) Wear a seat belt.

(3) Don’t drink alcohol.

(4) Don’t drive a motor bike.

Q 132. Which part of speech is the underlined word in the following sentence ?

Yet, we are all making a whole range of decisions.

(1) Adverb

(2) Conjunction

(3) Pronoun

(4) Preposition

Q 133. Which part of speech is the underlined word in the following sentence ?

Understanding this process is crucial.

(1) Determiner

(2) Preposition

(3) Adverb

(4) Conjunction

Q 134. Smokers run double the risk of contracting heart disease.

The word ‘contracting’ here means

(1) receiving

(2) removing

(3) catching

(4) avoiding

Q 135. An example of ‘limited area’ of health is :

(1) smoking

(2) taking exercise

(3) wearing a seat belt

(4) taking medicines

Q 136. A teacher asks her learners to discuss in groups of four, jot down ideas and then develop them in an outline to write a paragraph. Learners then edit the paragraph into a final draft. Which strategy of writing does the teacher follow here ?

(1) Group work

(2) Process approach

(3) Product approach

(4) Discussion method

Q 137. Transaction listening

(1) lays emphasis on conveying information.

(2) lays emphasis on harmonious communication in the social context.

(3) does not require careful attention to details and facts.

(4) is interactive by nature.

Q 138. CALP stands for

(1) Cognitively Academic Language Proficiency

(2) Cognitively Advanced Language Proficiency

(3) Competency based Academic Language Proficiency

(4) Comparative Academic Language Proficiency

Q 139. ‘A task’ in Task Based Language Learning means _____.

(1) an activity where the target language is used by the learner for a communicative purpose.

(2) a piece of work designed by the teacher for language teacher.

(3) a text-book exercise to be carried out by learners individuals.

(4) a task for the teacher for assessing learners language learning.

Q 140. According to National Curriculum Framework 2005, which one of the following is NOT an objective of language teaching-learning ?

(1) the competence to understand what one hears.

(2) ability to read with comprehension.

(3) effortless expression.

(4) to know the history of languages.

Q 141. Which one of the following is NOT true of language learning ?

(1) Reading is making meaning.

(2) Grammatical rules are important for learning a language.

(3) Language learning takes time.

(4) Language learning needs a context.

Q 142. Which is an effective way of teaching learning grammar ?

(1) Teaching the rules first followed by examples.

(2) Presenting grammar form in a natural discourse, then explaining how the form is made and used.

(3) Presenting single sentence examples in plenty of ways and then explaining the form.

(4) Teaching through a typical grammar book.

Q 143. What status is given to English language in the Indian Constitution ?

(1) Recognised language

(2) Associate official language

(3) Official language

(4) Foreign language

Q 144. A language teacher asks learners to write a paragraph on ‘scarcity of water’. Learners gather information from science and social science books and other sources before writing. Such task aims at :

(1) developing the scientific attitude.

(2) completing the syllabus of other subjects simultaneously.

(3) achieving language learning across the curriculum.

(4) enhancing co-curricular skills.

Q 145. Which one of the following is NOT an assessment tool for language learning ?

(1) Observation schedule

(2) Portfolio

(3) Assignment

(4) Realia

Q 146. Teaching a novel is to promote :

(1) reading for pleasure

(2) reading for details

(3) reading to become a writer

(4) reading to learn vocabulary

Q 147. Story telling as a strategy in language teaching is aimed at _____.

(1) learning the morals.

(2) learning to retell the story.

(3) engaging learners with language.

(4) testing the memory of learners.

Q 148. ‘Input Hypothesis’ refers to

(1) the relationship between what the learner is exposed to of a language and language acquisition.

(2) the relationship between what languages the learners know and the languages they are taught.

(3) the relationship among the learner, teacher and the materials.

(4) all the inputs of the school.

Q 149. Which one of the following makes the communication a cyclic process ?

(1) Sender

(2) Receiver

(3) Feedback

(4) Message

Q 150. Top-down process of reading :

(1) proceeds from whole to part.

(2) proceeds from part to whole.

(3) proceeds from centre to periphery.

(4) proceeds from bottom to top.

CTET July 2019 Paper-I Previous Year Paper

CTET JULY 2019 PAPER I

PART – I

CHILD DEVELOPMENT AND PEDAGOGY

Directions : Answer the following questions (Q. Nos. 1 to 30) by selecting the correct/most appropriate options.

Q 1. According to Jean Piaget, children –

(1) actively construct knowledge as they manipulate and explore the world.

(2) learn by observing others following a process of observational learning.

(3) can be conditioned to behave in particular ways by carefully controlled stimulus – response associations.

(4) can be taught to behave and learn in a specific manner using principles of rewards and punishment.

Q 2. There are individual variations in the rate of motor development, yet the sequence of motor development is from ________ to _________.

(1) cephalocaudal; proximodistal

(2) proximodistal, cephalocaudal

(3) gross motor development; fine motor development

(4) fine motor development; gross motor development

Q 3. The period that initiates the transition to adulthood is –

(1) Adolescence

(2) Middle childhood

(3) Preoperational period

(4) End childhood

Q 4. A child argues that Heinz shouldn’t steal the drug (medicine that can save his wife) because he will be caught and sent to jail if he does so. According to Kohlberg, which stage of moral understanding does the child fall under ?

(1) The instrumental purpose orientation

(2) The social-order maintaining orientation

(3) The punishment and obedience orientation

(4) The universal ethical principle orientation

Q 5. Lev Vygotsky refers to the verbal dialogues that children have with themselves as –

(1) egocentric speech

(2) private speech

(3) distorted speech

(4) problematic speech

Q 6. Associating toys, articles of clothing, household items, occupations and colours with specific sex, is a demonstration of –

(1) evolved gender identity

(2) gender stereotyping

(3) gender theory

(4) gender relevance

Q 7. In an elementary classroom it is important to ________ the experiences that a child brings with her.

(1) deny

(2) neglect

(3) ignore

(4) build on

Q 8. A teacher should –

(1) maximize comparisons amongst students.

(2) promote students belonging to certain cultures.

(3) ignore cultural differences and diversity amongst students.

(4) communicate that she respects and values all cultures in the classroom.

Q 9. Which of the following constructs does the Right to Education Act, 2009 advocate ?

(1) Integrated education

(2) Inclusive education

(3) Segregation

(4) Mainstreaming

Q 10. ________ is the philosophy that all children have a right to get equal education in a regular school system.

(1) Inclusion

(2) Mainstreaming

(3) Special education

(4) Multicultural education

Q 11. Which of the following represents the correct matching of children in column-A with their primary characteristic in column-B ?

Column-A	Column-B
i. Gifted	a. Lacks reading fluency
ii. Learning disabled	b. Can think of original solutions
iii. Creative	c. Tendency to get distracted easily
iv. Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD)	d. Ability to learn quickly and independency

(1) d c b a

(2) d a b c

(3) d c a b

(4) a b d c

Q 12. Children learn effectively when –(1) the teacher fully controls everything that happens in the class including the children.

(2) they memorise facts given in the textbook.

(3) they copy answers written by the teacher on the blackboard.

(4) they actively participate in different activities and tasks.

Q 13. Children should _________ questions in the class.

(1) be encouraged to ask

(2) be discouraged to ask

(3) not be allowed to ask

(4) be stopped from asking

Q 14. Which of the following is NOT a key process through which meaningful learning occurs ?

(1) Memorization and recall

(2) Repetition and practice

(3) Instruction and direction

(4) Exploration and interaction

Q 15. When teachers have positive beliefs about students and their abilities, the students –

(1) are eager and motivated to learn.

(2) become relaxed and stop putting in any effort to learn.

(3) become unmotivated and stressed.

(4) are not affected in any way.

Q 16. Children’s errors –

(1) reflect how careless children are.

(2) should be immediately corrected by asking them to do repeated practice

(3) are a part of learning and give an insight into their thinking.

(4) are insignificant in the teaching learning process.

Q 17. Assessment –

(1) should be undertaken as a separate activity.

(2) should be a part of the teaching learning process.

(3) should be done only in terms of marks.

(4) should be based on objective type written tasks.

Q 18. In a constructionist frame, learning is –

(1) active and social in its character.

(2) passive and individualistic.

(3) the process of acquisition of knowledge.

(4) a change in behaviour as a result of experience.

Q 19. What principle does the following highlight ?

“Students who do not perform well, feel that they are not ‘good enough’ and feel demotivated. They are then likely to give up easily without trying or persisting in doing tasks.”

(1) Cognition and emotions are not separable.

(2) Cognition and emotions are not related.

(3) Heredity and environment are not separable.

(4) Heredity and environment are not related.

Q 20. A teacher can encourage children to become effective problem solvers by –

(1) writing step-by-step solution to all the questions in the textbook.

(2) giving them plenty of opportunities to answer similar kinds of questions from the textbook.

(3) emphasizing on rote memorization of the information given in the textbook.

(4) encouraging children to make intuitive guesses and to look at multiple solutions to the problem.

Q 21. Use of methods where learner’s own initiative and efforts are involved is an example of –

(1) Interpersonal intelligence

(2) Deductive method

(3) Learner-centered method

(4) Traditional method

Q 22. Which of the following statements about intelligence is correct ?

(1) Intelligence is the ability to think convergently.

(2) Intelligence is a relatively permanent change in behaviour as a result of experience.

(3) Intelligence is a hereditary trait that involves mental activities such as memory and reasoning.

(4) Intelligence is multidimensional involving several abilities not entirely measureable by intelligence tests.

Q 23. Which of the following is the primary socialising agency ?

(1) Family

(2) School

(3) Government

(4) Media

Q 24. The major proposition of Jean Piaget’s theory is that –

(1) Children’s thinking is inferior to adults.

(2) Children’s thinking is superior to adults.

(3) Children’s thinking is quantitatively different from adults.

(4) Children’s thinking is qualitatively different from adults.

Q 25. Gender is a/an –

(1) biological determinant

(2) psychological entity

(3) social construct

(4) economic concept

Q 26. Which of the following correctly identifies the broad domains of development ?

(1) Physical; cognitive; social and emotional

(2) Emotional; intellectual; spiritual and self

(3) Physical; personality; spiritual and emotional

(4) Social; physical; personality; self

Q 27. Which of the following statements regarding children and their learning is correct ?

(1) All children are naturally motivated to learn and are capable of learning.

(2) Children’s motivation to learn and their capability to learn is pre determined by heredity only.

(3) Children’s socio-economic background determines and limits their motivation and learning capability.

(4) Children have to be rewarded and punished to make them motivated for learning.

Q 28. In progressive-education children are seen as –

(1) miniature adults

(2) passive imitators

(3) active explorers

(4) blank slates

Q 29. According to Lev Vygotsky, learning is –

(1) a social activity

(2) an individual activity

(3) a passive activity

(4) a conditioned activity

Q 30. Which of the following characterizes a child in the preoperational stage ?

(1) Circular reactions

(2) Goal-directed behaviour

(3) Deferred Imitation

(4) Irreversibility of thought

PART – II

MATHEMATICS

Directions : Answer the following questions by selecting the correct/most appropriate options.

Q 31. A beaker is 3/7^th filled with water. Another 16 L of water is needed to fill the beaker to its brim. What is the capacity of the beaker ?

(1) 14 L

(2) 50 L

(3) 100 L

(4) 28 L

Q 32. Which of the following represents a descending order of numbers ?

(1) 3.05, 3.005, 3.50, 3.055, 30.5, 0.355

(2) 30.5, 3.50, 3.055, 3.05, 3.005, 0.355

(3) 30.5, 3.50, 3.05, 3.055, 3.005, 0.355

(4) 30.5, 3.05, 3.055, 3.50, 3.005, 0.355

Q 33. A shopkeeper mixed 5.3 kg of almonds, 2100 g of raisin, 2.2 kg of cashews and packed the mixture equally into two dozen packets. What is the weight to each packet ?

(1) 300 g

(2) 400 g

(3) 450 g

(4) 500 g

Q 34. What number am I ?

I am a 2 digit even number. I am a common multiple of 3, 4, 6. I have a total 9 factors.

(1) 48

(2) 56

(3) 24

(4) 36

Q 35. Asha plans to save some money from household expenditure to buy a mobile phone. Every week she saves ` 50 on Monday, ` 100 on Wednesday and ` 80 on Friday and spends ` 60 from this on Sunday. How many weeks would she take to save enough to buy a mobile phone of ` 5,950 ?

(1) 25

(2) 35

(3) 30

(4) 40

Q 36. If (11011)₂ = (________)₁₀, then number in the blank space is

(1) 22

(2) 27

(3) 30

(4) 33

Q 37. The side of a square is 10 cm. How many times will the new perimeter become if the side of the square is doubled ?

(1) Remains same

(2) 4 times

(3) 3 times

(4) 2 times

Q 38. Which of the following letters have both horizontal and vertical lines of symmetry ?

(1) A

(2) X

(3) C

(4) Y

Q 39. 72 × 28 = 36 × 4 × _________. The number in the blank is

(A) multiple of 7

(B) a prime number

(D) an even number

(E) factor of 56

Which of the following is correct ?

(1) (A), (B), (C)

(2) (A), (D), (B)

(3) (C), (D), (E)

(4) (A), (D), (E)

Q 40. What is the correct sequence a teacher of Class-III needs to follow to explain the concept of ‘Quarter’ (¼) to the students ?

(A) Write symbol of Quarter on black board.

(B) Provide concrete material and divides into Quarters.

(1) (A), (B), (C)

(2) (A), (C), (B)

(3) (B), (C), (A)

(4) (C), (A), (B)

Q 41. A Class-III student perform multiplication of 16  25 as follows :

16 × 25 = 8 × 2 × 5 × 5

= 8 × 5 × 2 × 5

= 40 × 10

= 400

Which property of multiplication has the student used in this question ?

(1) Distributive law

(2) Associative law

(3) Repeated addition

(4) Inverse multiplication law

Q 42. How will you cater to the needs of visually challenged students of your classroom in an inclusive school ?

(1) Make them sit with high achievers

(2) Use alternate teaching-learning methods and resources.

(3) Send them to special educator.

(4) Provide them extra time for practise.

Q 43. Which of the following is not a mathematical process ?

(1) Transposition

(2) Visualisation

(3) Memorisation

(4) Estimation

Q 44. Which of the following is not related to early number concept ?

(1) Classification

(2) Class inclusion

(3) Conservation

(4) Measurement

Q 45. Which of the following statements is true regarding ‘Numeral’ and ‘Number’ ?

(A) A numeral is a symbol used to represent number.

(B) Same number can be represented by different numerals.

(1) Both (A) and (B) are incorrect.

(2) (A) is correct and (B) is incorrect.

(3) (B) is correct and (A) is incorrect.

(4) Both (A) and (B) are correct.

Q 46. Read the following word problems on addition :

A. There are 15 oranges in one basket and 17 oranges in another basket. How many oranges are there altogether ?

B. The price of a mobile phone which is for ` 9,950 is increased by ` 375 after budget. What is the new price ?

Which of the following statements is correct ?

(1) ‘A’ represents augmentation structure of addition whereas ‘B’ represents aggregation structure of addition.

(2) ‘A’ represents ‘aggregation’ structure of addition whereas ‘B’ represents ‘augmentation’ structure of addition.

(3) Both represents aggregation structure of addition.

(4) Both represents augmentation structure of addition.

Q 47. A teacher gives the following task to the students of class-IV :

“Arrange 25 tiles in all possible rectangular arrays.”

Which of the following mathematical concepts can be addressed through this task ?

(1) Volume, area, length

(2) Area, factors, perimeter

(3) Area, perimeter, volume

(4) Area, volume, length

Q 48. Identify the correct statement about the ability to conserve different physical quantities in ‘measurement’ as proposed by Piaget.

(1) Conservation of weight is grasped before conservation of volume.

(2) Conservation of volume is grasped before conservation of mass.

(3) Conservation of weight is grasped before conservation of number.

(4) Conservation of length is grasped before conservation of number.

Q 49. Van Hiele’s levels refers to stages in the development of

(1) Number concept

(2) Place value

(3) Geometrical thinking

(4) Fractions

Q 50. Which one of the following sets are Problem Solving Strategies in Mathematics ?

(1) Trial-error, drawing, memorisation

(2) Drawing, working back, rote learning

(3) Reasoning, using variable, look for a pattern

(4) Memorisation, Guess & test, drawing

Q 51. Which of the following teaching learning resources is best suited to explain the concept of multiplication of two decimal numbers say 0.3 X 0.2 = 0.06 ?

(1) Dienes blocks

(2) Taylor’s abacus

(3) Number chart

(4) Graph paper

Q 52. As per the recommendation of NCF 2005, Primary School mathematics curriculum should

(1) relate to children’s everyday experiences.

(2) focus on procedural knowledge

(3) provide rigour in mathematical concepts

(4) prepare children for advanced mathematics.

Q 53. Which of the following is not a characteristic of effective mathematics pedagogy ?

(1) Using various teaching-learning strategies for a single concept.

(2) Following strict time rules when introducing a new concept.

(3) Focussing patterns of students errors.

(4) Making connections with everyday experiences.

Q 54. Which of the following is not an effective strategy to assess primary level students’ learning in mathematics ?

(1) Designing tasks to differentiate between rote memorisation and conceptual understanding.

(2) Analysing children’s errors to understand their reasoning.

(3) Designing tasks which elicit more than one level of response.

(4) Using primarily group administered tasks.

Q 55. How many quarters are there in 18₄³ ?

(1) 68

(2) 75

(3) 72

(4) 35

Q 56. In a school, half of students play badminton, one-fourth (1/4^th) play volleyball, one-eighth (1/8^th) play tennis, one-sixteenth (1/16^th) play chess and the remaining go for swimming. If the number of students playing volleyball is 160, how many students play chess ?

(1) 40

(2) 120

(3) 80

(4) 20

Q 57. Deepa goes to a post-office to post/mail letters and parcels. The postal rates depicted are as below :

Letter Weighing : (i) 20 g or less – Rs. 5.00 (ii) Per every additional 20 g – Rs. 2.00 Parcel Weighing : (i) 50 g or less – Rs. 5.00 (ii) For every additional 50 g – Rs. 3.00

Deepa wants to send two parcels weighing 250 g and 300 g respectively and two letters each to 20 g and 35 g respectively. How much postal charge does she have to pay ?

(1) Rs. 41

(2) Rs. 48

(3) Rs. 39

(4) Rs. 49

Q 58. Digits 2, 3, 4, 6, 7, 8 are arranged in the following blanks :

____ ____ ____ + ____ ____ ____

The largest possible number after addition is

(1) 808

(2) 1605

(3) 1560

(4) 1308

Q 59. Read the following Railway timings of New Delhi – Chennai Rajdhani express and answer the question :

Station	Arrival	Departure
New Delhi	–	15:55
Bhopal	23:55	00:05
Nagpur	05:25	05:35
Vijaywada	14:15	14:30
Chennai	20:45	end

Which of the following statements is true ?

(1) The duration of Journey from Bhopal to Vijaywada is 13 hr. 10 min.

(2) The duration of Journey from Nagpur to Chennai is 15 hr. 10 min.

(3) The duration of Journey from New Delhi to Nagpur is 11 hr. 30 min.

(4) The duration of Journey from Bhopal to Chennai is 21 hr. 40 min.

Q 60. A whole number is added to 50 and the same number is subtracted from 50. The sum of the resulting numbers is

(1) 25

(2) 50

(3) 0

(4) 100

PART – III

ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES

Directions : Answer the following questions by selecting the correct/most appropriate options.

Q 61. Which of the following is NOT obtained from petroleum ?

(1) Diesel

(2) Wax

(3) Grease

(4) Coal

Q 62. Select from the following a set of festivals celebrated on the full-moon day.

(1) Diwali, Guru Nanak’s Birthday, Rakshabandhan

(2) Holi, Mahashivratri, Buddhajayanti

(3) Holi, Rakshabandhan, Guru Nanak’s Birthday

(4) Diwali, Mahashivratri, Guru Nanak’s Birthday

Q 63. Which one of the following groups of states has a coast on Arabian sea ?

(1) Karnataka, Kerala, Gujarat

(2) Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Odisha

(3) Kerala, Karnataka, West Bengal

(4) Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka

Q 64. Where is Jharkhand located on the map of our country ?

(1) West of Uttar Pradesh

(2) East of West Bengal

(3) North of Odisha

(4) South-East of Chhattisgarh

Q 65. You are located at X and your school is located at Y. There is no straight path from your house to school. So, you first go to A which is 30 m due north of X, then go to B which is 40 m due west of A, then go to C which is 30 m due north of B and finally you reach your school at Y which is 40 m due west of C. With respect to your school the correct direction of your house is

(1) North-West

(2) Due South

(3) Due East

(4) South-East

Q 66. A boy boarded a train on 30^th June, 2019 at Madgaon for Nagarcoil. The train departed at 09:45 hours from Madgaon and reached Nagarcoil at 07:15 hours on the next day. If the distance covered by the train during this time interval is 1140 km, the average speed of the train was

(1) 51.5 km/h

(2) 53 km/h

(3) 54.5 km/h

(4) 57 km/h

Q 67. In one of the forests of our country the village council (Panchayat) allots the land to the forest people (Adivasis) for farming in a special unit called ‘tin’. What is tin ?

(1) A land with dimensions 100 m × 100 m

(2) A land on which a farmer grows one tin of seeds

(3) A land from which a farmer produces one tin of seeds

(4) A unit of land specially designed for the farmers of the forests.

Q 68. In which one of the following cities the mountains of sand called “Sand Dunes” are found ?

(1) Kabul

(2) Abu Dhabi

(3) Berlin

(4) Thimpu

Q 69. We all observe old wells which have dried up. Our elders say that about 25-30 years ago there was sufficient water in the wells, but now these have completely dried up. Select from the following the possible correct reasons for drying up of water in the wells.

A. The lakes (ponds) in which rain water used to collect are no longer there.

B. The soil around the trees, well and nearby area is now covered with coaltar/cement.

C. No one uses wells as there are taps in every house.

D. A number of electric motor driven pumps have come up to draw underground water.

(1) A, B and C

(2) B, C and D

(3) C, D and A

(4) A, B and D

Q 70. In EVS concepts and issues have not been compartmentalized into science and social science. Why ?

(1) Syllabus of EVS has been prescribed as such by CBSE.

(2) The child looks at her/his environment in holistic manner.

(3) It is a good teaching-learning strategy.

(4) It is for decreasing the syllabus load.

Q 71. Which of the following is true w.r.t. EVS subject for classes I and II ?

(1) Issues and concerns related to EVS are transacted through language.

(2) Issues and concerns related to EVS are transacted through language and mathematics.

(3) EVS is a new subject introduced at the classes I to II.

(4) EVS as subject is not easy to understand at classes I and II.

Q 72. In EVS themes have been proposed instead of topics in the syllabus. Why ?

(1) For reducing chapters in EVS.

(2) To enhance the environmental comprehension of the learners.

(3) For developing connected and interrelated understanding of issues of the learners’ local environment.

(4) Theme based EVS transaction is easy as compared to the topics.

Q 73. Which one of the following is not one of the six broad themes of EVS in the present syllabus ?

(1) Food

(2) Shelter

(3) Things we make and do.

(4) Work and play

Q 74. Which one of the following is not true w.r.t EVS ?

(1) Nature of EVS is integrated.

(2) EVS is based on child centred learning.

(3) EVS provides opportunities to the learners to explore their environment.

(4) EVS emphasizes descriptions and definitions.

Q 75. Which one of the following is very important in constructing knowledge in EVS ?

A. Active participation of the learner.

B. Relating child’s knowledge with the teachers knowledge.

C. Learning EVS outside the four walls of the classroom.

D. Relating child’s local knowledge to the school knowledge.

(1) A, C and D

(2) D only

(3) A only

(4) A and D only

Q 76. The most effective strategy to engage learners in EVS is __________.

(1) Narratives

(2) Reading of textbook

(3) Explanations by teacher

(4) Classroom Demonstration

Q 77. Children should be encouraged to tap sources other than textbooks and teachers in EVS. Why ?

A. Textbook and teacher are not the only sources of EVS learning.

B. It will promote the involvement of parents and communities.

C. It will provide opportunity to teachers to know the child’s background.

D. It will develop psychomotor skills and aesthetic sense of the children.

(1) B and C only

(2) A, B and C

(3) B, C and D

(4) C and D only

Q 78. A teacher always begins by conducting activities followed by questions and discussions. The objective of conducting activities, questions and discussion is to _____.

A. Assess the children’s process skills

B. Provide an opportunity to the children to explore

C. Provide an opportunity to the children to express themselves

D. Discriminate between the children bases on their pace of learning

(1) D only

(2) C only

(3) B, C and D

(4) A, B and C

Q 79. A teacher conducts an experiment on “How does food get spoilt ?”

Teacher makes groups of learners and provides them material related to the experiment. Why does teacher form groups of learners ?

A. It promotes peer learning.

B. It improves social interaction.

C. Group learning is effective way of learning EVS without burden.

D. Group learning is an essential strategy to maintain discipline in the class.

(1) A and B only

(2) C and D only

(3) A and C only

(4) B and D only

Q 80. Which of the following should not be the indicator for assessment in EVS ?

(1) Concern for justice and equality

(2) Co-operation

(3) Remembering

(4) Questioning

Q 81. In EVS, teachers should provide opportunities to the children to assess themselves. Self-assessment is ________.

(1) CCE

(2) Assessment as learning

(3) Assessment of learning

(4) Assessment for learning

Q 82. Which technique is used in the rating scale ?

(1) Written question

(2) Observation

(3) Checklist

(4) Assignments

Q 83. Which of the following is not the objective of teaching EVS ?

(1) To nurture the curiosity and creativity of the child.

(2) To develop an awareness about environmental issues.

(3) To engage the child in exploratory and hands on activities.

(4) To encourage children to provide textbook definitions.

Q 84. Picture reading is an important activity in EVS. Which of the following indicator/indicators of learners can be assessed through picture reading ?

A. Observation and recording

B. Expression

C. Analysis

D. Experimentation

(1) D only

(2) A, B and C

(3) A and C only

(4) A and B only

Q 85. In a hilly area it was observed that the people have built their houses using stones, mud, lime and wood. These houses have two floors. On the ground floor they provide space for animals to live and also store necessary things, on the first floor they stay. The roofs of the houses are flat and made of thick tree trunks. This hilly area is a part of

(1) Arunachal Pradesh

(2) Meghalaya

(3) Himachal Pradesh

(4) Jammu and Kashmir

Q 86. Consider the following statements about the practices followed under “Jhoom farming” :

A. After obtaining one set of crops the land is left as it is for some years.

B. The bamboo or weeds which grow on the land are pulled out and burnt.

C. The ash obtained on burning the weeds etc. is used as fertilizer.

D. When the land is ready for farming it is deeply ploughed before dropping the seeds.

The correct statement(s) is/are

(1) only A

(2) only D

(3) B and C

(4) A and D

Q 87. Boiled tapioca with any curry made using coconut is a preferred food of the people of

(1) Kerala

(2) West Bengal

(3) Bihar

(4) Tamil Nadu

Q 88. It is believed that the animals that are awake at night can see objects only in

(1) violet and blue

(2) green and yellow

(3) orange and red

(4) black and white

Q 89. Earthworms are considered friends of the farmers. Select from the following the correct reasons for the same :

A. Earthworms eat the dead leaves and plants and their droppings fertilize the soil.

B. Earthworms eat the weeds and save the main crop.

C. Earthworms soften the soil by digging underneath.

D. The tunnels made by the earthworms provide easy passage to air and water into the soil.

(1) A, B and C

(2) B, C and D

(3) C, D and A

(4) A and C only

Q 90. Tribal people have been using bronze to make many things since thousand of years. Bronze is still used in our houses. Select from the following the most correct statement about bronze.

(1) It is an element like aluminium and copper.

(2) It is a mixture of copper and brass.

(3) It is a mixture of copper, zinc and aluminium.

(4) It is a mixture of copper and tin.

PART – IV

LANGUAGE – I

ENGLISH

IMPORTANT : Candidates should attempt questions from Part – IV (Q. No. 91-120), if they have opted for ENGLISH as LANGUAGE – I only.

Directions : Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow. (91 to 99) :

The future of water will be a gamble – resting entirely on the way we decide to play the game here. Either we continue to use water irresponsibly, threatening the very existence of this planet, or we adopt sustainable and smart water management practices to build a water secure future.

By 2050, India’s total water demand will increase by 32 percent from now. Industrial and domestic sectors will account for 85 percent of the additional demand. Over-exploitation of ground-water, failure to recharge acquifers and reduction in catchment capacities due to uncontrolled urbanisation are all causes of the precarious tilt in the water balance.

If the present rate of groundwater persists, India will have only 22 percent of the present daily per capita water available in 2050, possibly forcing the country to import its water.

Optimists believe that India’s people some 1.7 billion by 2050, will have integrated water efficient practices into their daily lives. If the ambitious water sustainability goals set by global industries and governments are testament we dare say that the world has begun to recognize water as a resource after all.

While beverages giants are focussed on returning water to the communities where they manufacture their drinks, food processing players are engaging with farmers and upstream actors to minimise water usage across the supply claim and textile houses are evangelising the concept of sustainable fashion. Companies have realised the risks emanating from the possibility of a water-scarce future. This has triggered companies to re-engineer processes, implement water optimizing, technologies, establish water audit standards, and use a collaborative approach to deal with the water crisis.

Q 91. Persistent ground water depletion will NOT necessitate :

(1) import of water

(2) shutting down of industries

(3) adoption of smart water management technologies

(4) using water judiciously

Q 92. Optimists cannot pin their hope for better water management on :

(1) integrating water efficient practices into daily use.

(2) reducing demand for water by using new technologies.

(3) discovering new ways of augmenting water supply.

(4) treating sea water for domestic and industrial sectors.

Q 93. The problem of acute water scarcity in future cannot be dealt with by companies through

(1) establishing water audit standards.

(2) implementing water optimizing technologies

(3) discovering a viable substitute for water.

(4) re-engineering processes

Q 94. Which one of the following words is most similar in meaning to the word ‘threatening’ as used in the passage ?

(1) frightening

(2) menacing

(3) coercing

(4) persisting

Q 95. Which one of the following words is most opposite to the meaning of the word ‘increase’ as used in the passage ?

(1) decrease

(2) perceive

(3) achieve

(4) relieve

Q 96. Identify the clause in the underlined part of the following sentence :

He breathed his last in the village where he was born.

(1) Noun clause

(2) Adjective clause

(3) Adverb clause

(4) Principal clause

Q 97. What part of speech is the underlined word in the following sentence ?

I do not know why he is so curious about it.

(1) Adjective clause

(2) Noun clause

(3) Principal clause

(4) Adverb clause

Q 98. We will face a severe water-scarcity problem in future mostly because :

(1) ground-water level water is steadily decreasing.

(2) water is not a renewable source.

(3) by 2050, demand for water will increase considerably.

(4) we do not use water responsibly.

Q 99. Which of the following will NOT lead to a severe water imbalance ?

(1) flawless water infrastructure.

(2) over-exploitation of water.

(3) failure to recharge acquifers.

(4) uncontrolled urbanisation

Directions : Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow (Q. Nos. 100 to 105) by selecting the correct/most appropriate options :

All creation drinks with pleasure,

Drinks at Mother Nature’s breast;

All the just, and all the evil,

Follow down her rosy path.

Kisses she bestowed, and grape wine,

Friendship true, proved e’en in death;

Every worm knows nature’s pleasure,

Every cherub meets his God.

Gladly, like the planets flying

True to heaven’s mighty plan,

Brothers, run your course now,

Happy as a knight in victory.

Q 100. Which of the following does not support the idea that Mother Nature’s love embraces all ?

(1) All creation drinks at Mother Nature’s heart.

(2) She bestows kisses on all her children.

(3) She loves all the just but not all the evil.

(4) She also blesses us with true friendship.

Q 101. What is the hallmark of a true friend ?

(1) He saves you from troubles.

(2) He helps you to enjoy the fruits of nature.

(3) He proves true even in death.

(4) He can take on all the evils for you.

Q 102. Rosy path is followed by ________.

(1) the just

(2) the evil

(3) both just and evil

(4) neither the just nor the evil

Q 103. Identify and name the figure of speech used in “All creation ‘Drinks at Mother Nature’s breast’”.

(1) Metonymy

(2) Simile

(3) Personification

(4) Alliteration

Q 104. What does the expression, “Brothers, run your course now’ mean ?

(1) Keep on moving towards your goal.

(2) Don’t let failures upset you.

(3) Seek god’s help when you are in difficulty.

(4) Cultivate a positive attitude to life.

Q 105. How can we say that God’s creatures are most fortunate and happy ?

(1) The world they live in lacks romance and beauty.

(2) They have no friends to share their joys and sorrows.

(3) They do not have enough pleasures at their disposal.

(4) They have a benevolent Mother Nature to look after them.

Answer the following questions (Q Nos. 106 to 120) by selecting the most appropriate option out of the given options.

Q 106. A Hindi speaking teacher gets posted in a primary school which is in the area of Punjab. Since he doesn’t know the local language of that area. He should :

(1) apply for the transfer to a Hindi speaking area.

(2) motivate the community to learn Hindi, as it’s a national / official language.

(3) communicate in English as it is difficult for him to understand their local dialect.

(4) use the child’s language as a resource and start teaching.

Q 107. While designing a working activity for a language class a teacher should most importantly focus on :

(1) choosing a topic from their surroundings.

(2) giving clear instructions for the task.

(3) providing all the necessary vocabulary required for the task.

(4) assigning an authentic piece of writing task.

Q 108. Some children do not have exposure to English outside the classroom. So, the teacher’s proficiency in spoken English is essential because :

(1) the teacher can give more time to grammar drills.

(2) the teacher can edit the errors in student’s learning process.

(3) the students may listen to and process the new language before they actually communicate in it.

(4) students can imitate, practise and drill the statements or sentences used by the teacher.

Q 109. Which of the following classroom practices helps a teacher to develop oral language among the students ?

(1) Chorus reading of the text with the teacher.

(2) Chorus recitation/individual recitation of the poem after memorising it.

(3) Participating in role-plays on any one of their favourite scenes.

(4) Practising the correct pronunciation of new or unfamiliar words.

Q 110. In a constructivist classroom language learning would most importantly be based on:

(1) group discussion and peer interaction.

(2) minute observation and record of each child’s handwriting development.

(3) correction of spelling errors and making sure that they are not repeated.

(4) carefully completing the language syllabus.

Q 111. As a language teacher which one of the following is most important for you regarding teaching of grammar ?

(1) Memorising grammar rules.

(2) Avoiding grammar rules.

(3) Using functional approach.

(4) Using grammar translation method.

Q 112. Which one of the following is a correct statement about a textbook ?

(1) It is planning of educational activities for the session.

(2) A textbook is the final thing for the teacher.

(3) It helps to achieve the objectives laid down in the curriculum.

(4) The textbooks are the only source to read.

Q 113. The purpose of diagnostic test in language learning is to

(1) give feedback to the parents in the PTMs.

(2) fill the progress report of students.

(3) plan and prepare question paper for summative assessment.

(4) know the gaps in learners understanding.

Q 114. The purpose of Continuous Comprehensive Evaluation (CCE) in language is :

(1) to assess the students’ understanding of the textbook.

(2) to assess their learning gaps.

(3) to give regular tests i.e. weekly tests.

(4) to assess the level of competencies achieved by the children.

Q 115. Under which act did English get the status of the associate official language ?

(1) Official Language Act, Article-343

(2) Associate Official Language Act, Article-343

(3) Three Language Formula

(4) National Curriculum Framework

Q 116. A teacher is appreciating a child for his ‘overall language use’, though some of the words were misspelt by him. The teacher is using _______ approach in her class.

(1) Structural

(2) Communicative

(3) Constructivist

(4) Whole language

Q 117. Which approach lays a lot of emphasis on habit formation ?

(1) Cognitive approach

(2) Communicative approach

(3) Behaviouristic approach

(4) Eclectic approach

Q 118. In the context of ‘theory of multiple intelligence’ which one of the following intelligences is related to language ?

(1) Visual-Spatial Intelligence

(2) Fluency-Accuracy Intelligence

(3) Linguistic-Verbal Intelligence

(4) Vocabulary Grammar Intelligence

Q 119. Banishing mother tongue in the classroom is the characteristic feature of _________ method.

(1) Direct

(2) Bi-lingual

(3) Grammar translation

(4) Natural

Q 120. ________ deals with the level of meaning in language.

(1) Syntax

(2) Semantics

(3) Collocation

(4) Colloquial

PART – V

LANGUAGE – II

ENGLISH

IMPORTANT : Candidates should attempt questions from Part – V (Q. No. 121-150), if they have opted for ENGLISH as LANGUAGE – II only.

Directions : Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow (Q. No. 121 to 128) by choosing the correct/most appropriate options :

On an ordinary workday, 27-year old Pramila Bariki hikes up steep slopes across fields, through ankle-deep rivulets, often walking upto 14 kms. She gets a ride until the road is motorable, from which point she has to walk.

Her job ? She doles out healthcare advice to mothers and children in the remotest hamlets in the Araku valley of Andhra Pradesh.

Now heavily pregnant Pramila has had to slow down delegating tasks to Duridi, Neeraj, Sunita and others. It’s they who now walk through forests and climb up moutains, visiting families to identify pregnant women and conduct basic tests for diabetes and anaemia and connect them with a primary health centre whenever necessary.

These young tribal women are all trained auxiliary nurses, part of an experimental health project in Araku that aims to end preventable deaths during childbirth or infancy.

The Araku valley is home to several nomadic tribes who live in small clusters of 70 to 150 homes situated in rugged and inaccessible terrain. Until a few years ago these communities were unaware of government healthcare policies. The death of a child or a woman during pregnancy or child birth was common and they were resigned to it.

Today 38 women like Pramila drawn from these tribes, have broken social and cultural barriers to train as nurses and provide medical care to 1179 hamlets across the Araku, Paderu and Chintapalli mandals. Since they are from these communities they have been able create trust in the families and neighbours about formal healthcare. As a result these remote villages have now had the first childbirth in hospital, the first delivery by a trained nurse and the first mother not to lose a child.

The nurses advise women on hygiene and nutrition and convince them to visit the nearest health centre for further check-ups.

Q 121. The health project launched in the tribal areas aims to :

(1) prevent deaths during pregnancy and child birth.

(2) raise the living standard in the tribal areas.

(3) provide nutrition to women and children

(4) provide employment alongwith education.

Q 122. The tribal people trust the health workers mostly because they :

(1) help them get employment.

(2) are educated and soft-spoken.

(3) help them settle their domestic disputes.

(4) belong to their own community.

Q 123. Read the following statements :

A. Child mortality rate in the tribal areas was very high in the past.

B. Pramila and her colleagues are rendering invaluable services to the tribal women.

(1) A is true, B is false.

(2) B is true, A is false.

(3) Both A and B are false.

(4) Both A and B are true.

Q 124. Which one of the following words is similar in meaning to ‘remotest’ as used in the passage ?

(1) toughest

(2) farthest

(3) highest

(4) tallest

Q 125. Which one of the following words is opposite in meaning to ‘trust’ as used in the passage ?

(1) disdain

(2) distrust

(3) disrupt

(4) dismantle

Q 126. He could not clear the exam because he didn’t work hard.

Identify the clause in the underlined part of the sentence given above :

(1) Adverb clause

(2) Adjective clause

(3) Noun clause

(4) Principal clause

Q 127. Which part of the following sentence contains an error ?

The sudden rise	and fall of prices	make a business	very uncertain
(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)

(1) (a)

(2) (b)

(3) (c)

(4) (d)

Q 128. The job of the auxiliary nurses is physically challenging because they :

(1) have to face opposition from the local traditional healers.

(2) are not paid any renumeration for their work.

(3) have to walk through forests and up mountains to reach out to people.

(4) are not liked by the people whom they want to help.

Directions : Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow (Q. No. 129 to 135) by choosing the correct/most appropriate options :

Kaizen in Japanese means constant and never ending improvement. There is no pursuit more noble or important than the pursuit of self-improvement. As Confucius said many years ago : “Good people strengthen themselves ceaselessly”. Consistent and constant improvement in all areas is essential to reach your true potential. The personal trademark of almost every high achiever and successful person is a dedication to daily improvement in both their personal and professional lives. From Ben Franklin to Mahatma Gandhi, from Martin Luther King Jr. to Ivan Lendl and from Nelson Mandela to Mother Teresa, effective people do things daily to advance confidently in the direction of their goals and dreams.

You must also apply the Kaizen principle on a daily basis to condition your mind to peak performance. It has been said that the mind is a terrible master but a wonderful servant. By seeking to improve your mind and condition it to excellence of thought, this wonderful servant will most certainly bring you all the peace, prosperity and joy you now search for.

Study any person’s great success story and you will undoubtedly learn of their commitment to Kaizen. They will be dedicated to small, daily improvements in the key areas of their lives and become the very best that they could be. Personal mastery is like a bank account, call it the Personal Excellence Account. By improving daily, whether it is by spending some time exercising, reading, visualizing or forging better relationships, you are making regular deposits into your account. After only one month, for example, you will have improved the richness and quality of your world by at least 30%.

Q 129. What is common among the great people mentioned in para-1 ?

(1) They inspired all those who came into contact with them.

(2) They worked hard to alleviate the suffering of the downtrodden.

(3) They tried their best to realise their goals.

(4) They resisted every temptation.

Q 130. How do we stand to gain when we condition our minds to do our best ?

(1) We earn name, fame and wealth.

(2) We rise in the estimation of our friends.

(3) We are able to overcome all obstacles.

(4) We realise our full capability.

Q 131. Read the following sentences :

A. All successful people are committed to Kaizen.

B. If we can control our mind, it will serve us wonderfully.

(1) A is false and B is true.

(2) A is true and B is false.

(3) Both A and B are true.

(4) Both A and B are false.

Q 132. Which word is the most similar in meaning to the word, ‘trademark’ used in the passage ?

(1) item

(2) object

(3) subject

(4) brand

Q 133. Which word is the most opposite in meaning to the word, ‘wonderful’ as used in the passage ?

(1) separate

(2) deficient

(3) unremarkable

(4) insufficient

Q 134. Which part of the following sentence contains an error ?

Since time immemorial	the Hindus	have been worshipping	the river Ganga
(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)

(1) (a)

(2) (b)

(3) (c)

(4) (d)

Q 135. How, according to the author, can we attain our full potential ?

(1) by putting in a lot of effort.

(2) by proper and ceaseless improvement in all areas.

(3) by seeking the advice and guidance of successful people.

(4) by working hard on our weaknesses

Answer the following questions (Q Nos. 136 to 150) by selecting the most appropriate options.

Q 136. A teacher of class-V wishes to teach a complex language structure from the syllabus. She should

(1) ask students to memorise the rules.

(2) not teach the complex structure and avoid it.

(3) focus on listening-speaking practice instead of teaching grammar.

(4) use a grammar game with a focus on this complex structure.

Q 137. As per Noam Chomsky’s theory, the role of Language Acquisition Device (LAD) helps children to

(1) learn second language easily.

(2) communicate actively in second language.

(3) generate grammar rules.

(4) imitate the language spoken by adults.

Q 138. Which of the following statements is correct ?

(1) Children’s first language is a hurdle in learning English.

(2) It is difficult to teach English as they use their first language in every aspect and ignore English.

(3) As a teacher you would like to give a list of English words on the very first day.

(4) Children come to school with a treasure of experience and their mother tongue acts like a resource in learning English.

Q 139. The study of how words combine to form phrases, phrases combine to form clauses and clauses join to make sentences is known as

(1) Semantics

(2) Syntax

(3) Collocation

(4) Colloquial

Q 140. English language has ________ consonant sounds.

(1) 21

(2) 22

(3) 23

(4) 24

Q 141. According to National Curriculum Framework, 2005, “English in India is ________ in a multilingual country.

(1) a first language

(2) a foreign language

(3) a global language

(4) an associate language

Q 142. A teacher divides the class in small groups and asks them to discuss and present their views on “Save Environment”. Students are free to plan and present their choice and creativity. The teacher is facilitating them as and when required. Which approach/method is followed in the class ?

(1) Constructivist approach

(2) Structural approach

(3) Natural approach

(4) Deductive approach

Q 143. A teacher of class-IV brought some interesting books and distributed them among the students. Then she said, “Today let’s have fun and read these books for our pleasure”. This reading is called

(1) Pre-reading

(2) Post-reading

(3) Intensive-reading

(4) Extensive-reading

Q 144. A 2½ year old child picks up his sibling’s book and looking at the pictures tells a story. The child is

(1) emergent writer

(2) emergent student

(3) emergent reader

(4) emergent story writer

Q 145. A teacher of class-III finds that some students understand the concept more clearly when she explains them orally. Their learning style is

(1) auditory

(2) visual

(3) kinesthetic

(4) aesthetic

Q 146. A teacher asks the students to read the text for information and create their own interpretation beyond the literal level. Which sub-skill is she practicising in the class ?

(1) Paraphrasing

(2) Predicting

(3) Inferring

(4) Summarising

Q 147. Story telling and listening to stories play an important role because stories

(1) help to teach and learn new and difficult words.

(2) use many structures of grammar and help children to learn them.

(3) present language as a whole.

(4) help the teacher to maintain classroom discipline.

Q 148. Before starting a new chapter on ‘The Honest Woodcutter’ the teacher started a discussion with the students on ‘Honesty’. What is the teacher trying to achieve with this activity ?

(1) Activate students’ attention.

(2) Activate students’ skill.

(3) Activate students’ previous knowledge

(4) Assess students’ level of language and its usage.

Q 149. A child got admission to a new school. The teacher was surprised to see that she would speak four languages fluently but could not speak in English. She is a

(1) monolingual

(2) bilingual

(3) multilingual

(4) linguist

Q 150. A student of class-V while reading a chapter finds some difficult and unfamiliar words and is not able to get the meaning of those words he should :

(1) ask the teacher.

(2) ignore or skip the word and keep reading.

(3) guess the meaning in content.

(4) ask his classmate every time to help.

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